NCLEX-PN
NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023
1. A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client's weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:
- A. within normal limits, so a weight-reduction diet is unnecessary
- B. lower than normal, so education about nutrient-dense foods is needed
- C. indicating obesity because the BMI is 35
- D. indicating overweight status because the BMI is 27
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obesity is defined by a BMI of 30 or more with no co-morbid conditions. It is calculated by utilizing a chart or nomogram that plots height and weight. This client's BMI is 35, indicating obesity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's BMI is above 30, which falls under the obesity category. Therefore, a weight-reduction diet and increased physical activity are necessary to address the client's weight status and promote overall health.
2. Why is starting a low CHO diet a contraindication for a client with renal insufficiency?
- A. As long as the client eats a minimum of 30g of CHO/day, there should be no problem.
- B. The client's clinical condition is a contraindication to starting a low CHO diet.
- C. Calcium supplements should be utilized to prevent the development of osteoporosis while on a low CHO diet.
- D. As long as the client eats foods that are high biologic protein sources, a low CHO diet can be followed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with renal insufficiency should not start a low CHO diet because it could result in an increased renal solute load. Clients with renal or liver disease require protein control in their diet to prevent complications. Proteins used must be of high biologic value, and protein intake is usually weight-based. Protein levels may be adjusted based on the client's clinical condition. A minimum level of carbohydrates is needed in the diet to spare protein. Vitamin and mineral supplements might be needed for clients with liver failure. The dietician plays a crucial role in calculating specific nutrient requirements for these clients and monitoring outcomes in conjunction with the healthcare team. Choice A is incorrect because simply consuming a minimum amount of carbohydrates does not address the issue of increased renal solute load. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements are not the primary concern when considering a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on the contraindication of a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency rather than just high biologic protein sources.
3. Which of the following classifications of medications is used to help decrease tremors for clients with hyperthyroidism?
- A. Steroids
- B. Anticonvulsants
- C. Beta blockers
- D. Iodine compounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Beta blockers. Beta blockers are commonly used to help decrease tremors in clients with hyperthyroidism by blocking the action of adrenaline. This helps to control symptoms such as rapid heart rate, tremors, and anxiety. Steroids (Choice A) are not typically used to treat tremors in hyperthyroidism. Anticonvulsants (Choice B) are primarily used to control seizures and are not the first-line treatment for tremors in hyperthyroidism. Iodine compounds (Choice D) are used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism by reducing the production of thyroid hormones but are not specifically indicated for tremor relief.
4. Which of the following lab values would indicate symptomatic AIDS in the medical chart? (T4 cell count per deciliter)
- A. Greater than 1000 cells per deciliter
- B. Less than 500 cells per deciliter
- C. Greater than 2000 cells per deciliter
- D. Less than 200 cells per deciliter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A T4 cell count of less than 200 cells per deciliter indicates symptomatic AIDS. This severe depletion of T4 cells signifies advanced HIV infection and a significantly compromised immune system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because T4 cell counts above 2000, above 1000, or below 500 cells per deciliter, respectively, are not indicative of symptomatic AIDS.
5. The nurse is caring for a client and wants to assess the neurologic function. Which of the following will give the most information?
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Doll's eye reflex
- C. Babinski reflex
- D. Reaction to painful stimuli
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Level of consciousness.' Assessing the client's level of consciousness provides crucial information about their neurologic function, including subtle changes in verbal ability, orientation, and responsiveness to commands. Doll's eye reflex is a specific eye movement test used in neurologic assessments but may not provide as much comprehensive information as the client's overall consciousness level. The Babinski reflex is a test used to assess specific spinal cord function rather than overall neurologic function. Reaction to painful stimuli provides information about sensory function and pain response but may not offer as much insight into the client's neurologic status as assessing their level of consciousness.
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