Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is about to give 100 mg Lopressor (metoprolol) to a client. Before administering the drug, they take the patient's vitals, which are as follows: Pulse: 58 Blood Pressure: 90/62 Respirations: 18/minute What action should the LPN take?

• A. Give the client half the prescribed dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• B. Give the client double the dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• C. Administer the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• D. Hold the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lopressor is given to treat hypertension, and a pulse of 58 and a blood pressure of 90/62 are considered low. To prevent the client from bottoming out, the drug should be held, and the findings reported to the RN, who should consult with the attending physician. LPNs should never adjust client dosing, as that is outside of their scope of practice. It is crucial to follow facility guidelines, which often recommend holding blood pressure medication at 60 bpm and a systolic pressure of 90 or less. By holding the drug and notifying the RN, the LPN ensures the client's safety and allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making by the healthcare team. Giving half the dose or double the dose without proper authorization can lead to serious complications and is considered unsafe practice.

2. When preparing a client for surgery, the graduate nurse realizes the operative permit has not been signed. The client tells the nurse he understands the procedure but received his preoperative medication approximately 10 minutes prior. The appropriate action would be:

• A. Have the client sign the permit, as he verbalizes understanding.
• B. Witness the form after having the client sign it.
• C. Have his wife sign the form as she witnessed him saying he wants the surgery.
• D. Call the surgical area and explain the surgery will have to be cancelled.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action in this scenario is to call the surgical area and explain that the surgery will have to be cancelled. The client must sign the operative permit or any other legal document before receiving preoperative medication. Without the signed permit, the surgery cannot proceed to ensure the client's safety and legal compliance. Having the client sign the permit, witnessing the form after the client signs it, or having someone else sign the form are all inappropriate actions and do not address the legal requirement of the client's signature before receiving preoperative medication.

3. A 65-year-old female client is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding. Which type of physician should this client be encouraged to see?

• A. a radiologist
• B. a gynecologist
• C. a physiatrist
• D. an oncologist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A gynecologist is the appropriate physician for this scenario as they specialize in treating and managing diseases of the female reproductive system, including postmenopausal bleeding. Postmenopausal bleeding can indicate serious conditions such as endometrial cancer, which a gynecologist can evaluate and manage. A radiologist primarily evaluates X-rays and imaging studies, not directly involved in managing gynecological issues. A physiatrist is a specialist in physical medicine and rehabilitation, not related to gynecological concerns. An oncologist specializes in diagnosing and treating cancer, which is not the primary concern in this case of postmenopausal bleeding.

4. A client who is experiencing infertility says to the nurse, 'I feel I will be incomplete as a man/woman if I cannot have a child.' Which of the following nursing diagnoses is likely to be appropriate for this client?

• A. Risk for Self-Harm
• B. Body Image Disturbance
• C. Ineffective Role Performance
• D. Powerlessness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for this client is 'Body Image Disturbance.' The client's statement reflects concerns about self-identity and feeling incomplete due to infertility, which aligns with Body Image Disturbance. The statement does not directly indicate a risk for self-harm, so 'Risk for Self-Harm' is not the correct choice. 'Ineffective Role Performance' is not the best option as it does not address the client's primary concern regarding self-image. While 'Powerlessness' could be appropriate if the client expressed feelings of powerlessness related to infertility, it is not the most suitable diagnosis based on the given statement.

5. A pregnant client is scheduled to undergo a transabdominal ultrasound, and the nurse provides information to the client about the procedure. The nurse provides which information?

• A. The procedure typically takes 10 to 30 minutes.
• B. She may need to drink fluids before the test and may not void until the test has been completed.
• C. A probe coated with gel will be inserted into the vagina.
• D. She will be positioned on her back, with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client may need to drink fluids before the test and may not void until the test has been completed. For a transabdominal ultrasound, the woman is positioned on her back with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side to prevent supine hypotension. A wedge or rolled blanket is placed under one hip to help her maintain this position comfortably. If a full bladder is necessary, the woman is instructed to drink several glasses of clear fluid 1 hour before the test and told that she should not void until the test has been completed. Warm mineral oil or transmission gel is spread over her abdomen, and the sonographer slowly moves a transducer over the abdomen to obtain a picture. The procedure typically takes 10 to 30 minutes, making choice A incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because a probe is not inserted into the vagina for a transabdominal ultrasound. Choice D is incorrect because the woman is positioned on her back with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side, not specifically on her back.

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