Nursing Elites

1. An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?

• A. The client has a low cardiac output.
• B. The client has a high cardiac output.
• C. The client has a normal cardiac output.
• D. The client will need a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.

2. When assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client as part of a health assessment, what aspect should be the focus?

• A. agility
• B. speed
• C. body composition
• D. risk factors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client, the primary focus should be on identifying risk factors that could predispose the client to illness or injury. Risk factors are crucial in determining an individual's overall health status and potential health outcomes. While agility, speed, and body composition are important components of physical fitness assessments, they are not the primary focus when assessing health-related physical fitness from a holistic perspective. Therefore, the correct choice is 'risk factors.'

3. During the examination of a client's throat, a nurse touches the posterior wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents normal function of which cranial nerves?

• A. Cranial nerves V and VI
• B. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• C. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• D. Cranial nerves IX and X

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). When the nurse touches the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex, it indicates normal function of these nerves. Cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VI (abducens nerve) are not directly responsible for the gag reflex. Cranial nerves XII (hypoglossal nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are not directly involved in eliciting the gag reflex. Testing cranial nerve I involves smell function, and cranial nerve II is related to eye examinations, making them irrelevant in this scenario.

4. When assisting the physician in performing transillumination of a client's scrotum, how should the nurse prepare for this procedure?

• A. Obtaining a flashlight and darkening the room
• B. Instructing the client to drink three glasses of water
• C. Instructing the client to take several deep breaths and bear down
• D. Telling the client that the procedure is very uncomfortable but that the discomfort will only last for a few moments

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing for transillumination of the scrotum, the nurse should obtain a flashlight and darken the room. This is done to allow the strong flashlight to be shined from behind the scrotal contents. Normal scrotal contents do not appear on transillumination. Instructing the client to drink fluids or to take deep breaths and bear down is not part of the preparation for this procedure. Additionally, it is not necessary to inform the client that the procedure is uncomfortable as transillumination is a painless procedure.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

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