Nursing Elites

1. An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?

• A. The client has a low cardiac output.
• B. The client has a high cardiac output.
• C. The client has a normal cardiac output.
• D. The client will need a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.

2. A nurse in the emergency department is assisting with data collection of a client. The presence of which condition would cause the nurse to avoid testing range of motion (ROM) of the cervical spine?

• A. Headache
• B. Neck trauma
• C. Sinus infection
• D. Muscle spasms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nurse assisting with data collection for a client should avoid testing the range of motion (ROM) of the cervical spine if the client has neck trauma. Neck trauma may have resulted in a cervical fracture, and further movement of the neck could lead to spinal cord injury. Testing ROM does not need to be avoided for headache, sinus infection, or muscle spasms as these conditions do not pose the same risk of exacerbating a potential cervical injury. Therefore, the correct answer is neck trauma.

3. When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse checks for which finding?

• A. Redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane
• B. An external auditory canal that is longer than normal
• C. The presence of edema in the external auditory canal
• D. A yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse should look for a yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal. Cerumen, also known as ear wax, is a secretion that can become impacted due to various reasons. It is produced by the vestigial apocrine sweat glands in the external ear canal. Cerumen may partially obscure the eardrum or totally occlude the ear canal. The other options, redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane, an external auditory canal that is longer than normal, and the presence of edema in the external auditory canal, are not indicative findings of cerumen impaction.

4. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
• C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
• D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.

5. How often should the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions be changed?

• A. every 24 hours
• B. every 36 hours
• C. every 48 hours
• D. every 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours. This frequency is necessary due to the high risk of bacterial growth associated with TPN solutions. Changing the tubing every 24 hours helps prevent contamination and bloodstream infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals increases the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the patient's system, leading to potentially severe complications.

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