Nursing Elites

1. An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?

• A. The client has a low cardiac output.
• B. The client has a high cardiac output.
• C. The client has a normal cardiac output.
• D. The client will need a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.

2. The patient is inquiring about the use of a PCA pump for pain management. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for additional education?

• A. "I will continue to report my pain score during assessments."?
• B. "I understand that there is a maximum dose per hour that I can receive regardless of how many times I press the button."?
• C. "I believe this new PCA pump will finally alleviate my back pain."?
• D. "I have more control over when and how much medication I receive."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, "I believe this new PCA pump will finally alleviate my back pain."? This statement indicates a need for additional education as it reflects an unrealistic expectation regarding pain management. It is essential for the patient to understand that while a PCA pump can provide effective pain relief, it may not completely eliminate pain. Option A is correct as it demonstrates the patient's understanding of the importance of reporting pain scores for proper pain management. Option B is correct as it shows the patient's awareness of the maximum dose limits to prevent overdose. Option D is correct as it highlights the patient's understanding of the control they have over their medication administration.

3. Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?

• A. intrauterine device (IUD)
• B. Norplant
• C. oral contraceptives
• D. vaginal sponge

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the vaginal sponge. The vaginal sponge, when used with foam or jelly contraception, acts as a barrier method that can reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs, in addition to preventing pregnancy. In contrast, IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives are effective in preventing pregnancy but do not provide protection against the transmission of HIV and STDs. IUDs prevent pregnancy by affecting sperm movement and survival, Norplant releases hormones to prevent ovulation, and oral contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation. However, these methods do not create a physical barrier against HIV and STD transmission. It is important to counsel clients using methods like IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives to also use chemical or barrier contraceptives to lower the risk of HIV or STD transmission.

4. A community health nurse is instructing a group of female clients about breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse instructs the clients to perform the examination in which manner?

• A. At the onset of menstruation
• B. Every month during ovulation
• C. Weekly, at the same time of day
• D. One week after menstruation begins

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Breast self-examination (BSE) should be performed after the menstrual period, specifically on the seventh day of the menstrual cycle, when the breasts are smallest and least congested. This timing facilitates the easier detection of any abnormalities. Performing BSE at the onset of menstruation (Option A) can lead to false results due to hormonal changes affecting breast tissue. Performing it every month during ovulation (Option B) is not recommended as breast tissue may be more tender and lumpy during this time. Conducting weekly examinations at the same time of day (Option C) is unnecessary and can lead to unnecessary anxiety for the client.

5. A client with massive chest and head injuries is admitted to the ICU from the Emergency Department. All of the following are true except:

• A. The physician in charge of the case is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur.
• B. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation for the donor if the client is unable to do so.
• C. The organ procurement organization makes the decision regarding which organs to harvest.
• D. The donor (or legally responsible party for the donor), the physician, and the organ-procurement organization are all involved in the process.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: While the physician plays a crucial role in the process of organ donation, they are not the sole decision-maker. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation if the client is unable to do so. Additionally, the organ procurement organization is responsible for determining which organs are suitable for donation. Therefore, the statement that the physician in charge is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur is incorrect. The correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are true statements as they highlight the involvement of the legally responsible party, the organ procurement organization, and the donor/legally responsible party, physician, and organ-procurement organization in the organ donation process respectively.

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