Nursing Elites

1. An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?

• A. The client has a low cardiac output.
• B. The client has a high cardiac output.
• C. The client has a normal cardiac output.
• D. The client will need a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.

2. When discussing birth control methods with a client, what major factor should a nurse focus on to provide the motivation needed for consistent implementation of a birth control method?

• A. Personal preference
• B. Work and home schedules
• C. Family planning goals
• D. Desire to have children in the future

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When discussing birth control methods with a client, a nurse should focus on the client's personal preference as a major factor that will provide the motivation needed for consistent implementation of a birth control method. Personal preference plays a key role in ensuring that the chosen method aligns with the client's lifestyle and values, increasing the likelihood of adherence. While work and home schedules, family planning goals, and the desire to have children in the future can influence the choice of birth control method, they are not the primary motivating factors for consistent implementation. Personal preference is crucial as it empowers the client to select a method that suits their individual needs and preferences, ultimately leading to better compliance and effectiveness.

3. A female client asks a nurse about the advantages of using a female condom. The nurse discusses which advantage with the client?

• A. That it offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
• B. That it cannot be used along with a male condom
• C. That it does not have to be discarded after use and can be used several times before a new one must be obtained
• D. That it is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the female condom offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Unlike the male condom, the female condom is a loose-fitting tubular polyurethane pouch that is anchored over the labia and cervix. It is used once and then discarded, making choice C incorrect. Female and male condoms should not be used together, so choice B is incorrect. Additionally, no contraceptive method is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy, making choice D incorrect.

4. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client in the labor unit who suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. On inspecting the amniotic fluid, the nurse notes that it is clear, with creamy white flecks. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take based on this finding?

• A. Check the client's temperature.
• B. Report the findings to the nurse-midwife.
• C. Obtain a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis.
• D. Document the findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Therefore, the nurse would most appropriately document the findings. Checking the client's temperature, reporting the findings to the nurse-midwife, and obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis are not necessary in this situation. Cloudy, yellow, or foul-smelling amniotic fluid suggests infection, while green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. If abnormalities are noted, the nurse should notify the nurse-midwife.

5. What is the primary nutritional deficiency of concern for a strict vegetarian?

• A. vitamin C
• B. vitamin B12
• C. vitamin E
• D. magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Vitamin B12 is the primary nutritional deficiency of concern for a strict vegetarian. While all mentioned vitamins are essential for overall health, vitamin B12 is particularly important for vegetarians as it is mainly found in animal products. A strict vegetarian diet may lack sufficient vitamin B12 intake, leading to potential health issues like anemia and neurological problems. Vitamin C deficiency is more commonly associated with scurvy, which is preventable with a diet rich in fruits and vegetables. Vitamin E deficiency is rare and usually only seen in specific medical conditions. Magnesium deficiency is not typically a primary concern for strict vegetarians as magnesium can be obtained from a variety of plant-based sources.

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