NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. An LPN is taking care of an elderly client who experiences the effects of Sundowner's Syndrome almost every evening. Which of these interventions implemented by the nurse would be the most helpful?
- A. Place a nightlight in the client's room.
- B. Administer the PRN sedative prescribed by the attending physician.
- C. Remind the client that the things and people they are seeing are not real and that they are safe.
- D. Turn on the TV or radio to a station the client enjoys.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A nightlight will help reorient the client to his or her surroundings in the evening and nighttime hours. It is best not to challenge the reality of a client experiencing Sundowner's Syndrome, and sedatives may make the effects of the syndrome worse. Every effort should be made to keep the client's room calm, quiet, and peaceful, so noise should be kept to a minimum. Reminding the client that what they are experiencing is not real may cause distress and confusion, while turning on the TV or radio may add unnecessary stimulation instead of promoting a soothing environment.
2. During a health assessment interview, the client tells the nurse that she has some vaginal drainage. The client is concerned that it may indicate a sexually transmitted infection (STI). Which statement should the nurse make to the client?
- A. 'When was your last gynecological checkup?'
- B. 'Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?'
- C. Don't worry about the discharge. Some vaginal discharge is normal.'
- D. 'I need some more information about the discharge. What color is it?'
Correct answer: D
Rationale: If the client reports having vaginal drainage and concerns about a possible STI, it is essential for the nurse to gather more information about the discharge. Asking about the color of the discharge helps in determining its characteristics, which can be crucial in identifying potential causes. The color, consistency, odor, and associated symptoms can provide valuable insights into the underlying issue. Statements A and B are relevant questions but not as immediate or specific to addressing the client's concern about the discharge. Statement C dismisses the client's worries and does not encourage further assessment, which is not appropriate in this context.
3. An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?
- A. closure of the posterior fontanel.
- B. closure of the anterior fontanel.
- C. overlap of cranial bones.
- D. ossification of the sutures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the posterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the posterior fontanel should be closed. The anterior fontanel typically closes around 12-18 months of age. Overlapping of cranial bones is not a normal finding and may indicate craniosynostosis, a condition where the sutures close too early. Ossification of the sutures is also not a normal finding in a 10-month-old baby as the sutures should remain open to allow for the growth of the skull.
4. A healthcare professional reviewing the health care record of a client notes documentation of grade 4 muscle strength. The healthcare professional understands that this indicates:
- A. Full ROM with gravity
- B. Full ROM against gravity with full resistance
- C. Full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion)
- D. Full ROM against gravity with some resistance
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Muscle strength is graded on a scale of 0 to 5. A grade of 5 indicates normal strength and is described as full ROM against gravity with full resistance. Grade 4 indicates good strength and full ROM against gravity with some resistance. Grade 3 indicates fair strength and full ROM with gravity. Grade 2 indicates poor strength and full ROM with gravity eliminated (passive motion). Grade 1 indicates trace strength and slight contraction. Grade 0 indicates zero strength and no contraction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Full ROM against gravity with some resistance.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the description of muscle strength associated with a grade of 4.
5. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them. Ampicillin has a pH of 8-10, while gentamicin has a pH of 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent any potential interactions. Option A is incorrect because administering both medications simultaneously can lead to incompatibility issues. Option C is incorrect because the nurse should already be aware of the correct administration sequence and not need to consult the physician or pharmacy each time. Option D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow down the treatment of the client's infection, which is not ideal in this scenario.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access