Nursing Elites

1. A client describes her cervical mucus as clear, thin, and elastic. Upon examination, the nurse demonstrates that the cervical mucus can be stretched 8-10 cm. The nurse correctly documents the finding as:

• A. increased ferning capacity.
• B. lack of ferning.
• C. spinnbarkheit.
• D. inhospitable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should document the finding as 'spinnbarkheit.' Spinnbarkheit is the term used to describe the clear, thin, and elastic cervical mucus that can be stretched 8-10 cm, indicating ovulation. It helps couples determine the most fertile period for conception. Ferning capacity or crystallization increases as ovulation approaches, but it requires microscopic examination to be confirmed. Lack of ferning cannot be determined without such examination. 'Inhospitable' cervical mucus refers to patterns that prohibit sperm motility, caused by various factors like hormone levels or infection. These conditions cannot be assessed based solely on the description provided in the question.

2. An allergic reaction is classified as what type of pharmacological effect?

• A. a therapeutic effect
• B. a side effect
• C. an adverse effect
• D. an incompatibility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An allergic reaction is classified as an adverse effect because it is an unintended response to a medication that requires treatment. A side effect is an undesired but somewhat expected reaction to a drug that does not necessarily need intervention. Incompatibility refers to an unsuitable combination of substances that leads to an adverse effect. A therapeutic effect is the desired and intended outcome of a medication.

3. When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, which of the following steps may be appropriate when communicating with the patient?

• A. Divide the verbal communication into smaller sections and address one at a time.
• B. Communicate only with written information.
• C. Ask multiple questions in a row quickly to make sure the patient is remaining engaged.
• D. Frequently communicate without assistive devices to help the patient improve their hearing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, it is important to divide verbal communication into smaller sections and address them one at a time. This approach helps the patient follow along more easily and understand the information being conveyed. While using written information can also be beneficial, solely relying on written communication may not always be practical or feasible for effective interaction. Asking multiple questions quickly can overwhelm the patient and hinder their ability to process each question adequately. It is essential to give the patient sufficient time to comprehend and respond. Additionally, frequently communicating without assistive devices is not recommended. Using assistive devices can significantly enhance the patient's ability to hear and understand, promoting better communication and patient care.

4. What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with suspected genitourinary trauma and visible blood at the urethral meatus?

• A. Insertion of a Foley catheter.
• B. In-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis.
• C. A voided urine specimen for urinalysis.
• D. A urologist consult.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urologist consult is the most appropriate intervention for a client with visible blood at the urethral meatus and suspected genitourinary trauma. This specialist can evaluate the extent of the trauma and provide the necessary treatment. Foley catheter insertion (Choice A) and in-and-out catheter specimen for urinalysis (Choice B) are contraindicated in the presence of genitourinary trauma as they can worsen the injury. While a voided urine specimen for urinalysis (Choice C) may be ordered by the physician, it does not address the specific management needed for genitourinary trauma. Therefore, a urologist consult is the best option in this scenario.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.

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