a nurse is preparing to assess a client for the presence of the tinel sign which action does the nurse take to elicit this sign
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions

1. A nurse is preparing to assess a client for the presence of the Tinel sign. Which action does the nurse take to elicit this sign?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Tinel sign is elicited by percussing at the location of the median nerve at the wrist. In carpal tunnel syndrome, this test can produce burning and tingling along the nerve's distribution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Testing for the strength of each muscle joint and checking for repetitive movements in the joints involve different assessments unrelated to the Tinel sign. Asking the client to flex the wrist 90 degrees while holding the hands back to back is associated with the Phalen test, which is another evaluation for carpal tunnel syndrome.

2. A nurse is trying to motivate a client toward more effective management of a therapeutic regimen. Which of the following actions by the nurse is most likely to be effective in increasing the client's motivation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To effectively motivate the client, it is important to educate them about the disorder at their level of understanding. This helps the client comprehend the importance of the therapeutic regimen and empowers them to actively participate in their treatment. Choice A, determining if the client has any family or friends living nearby, may provide social support but is less likely to directly impact the client's motivation compared to educating them about their condition. Developing a concise discharge plan, as in choice B, is crucial for continuity of care but may not directly enhance the client's motivation as effectively as providing education tailored to their level of understanding. Making a referral for follow-up, as in choice D, is important for ongoing care but may not have the same immediate impact on the client's motivation as educating them about their condition.

3. A home health care nurse is visiting a male African American client who was recently discharged from the hospital. Which family member does the nurse ensure is present when teaching the client about his prescribed medications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the African American family structure, the woman, especially the mother, often plays a central role in healthcare decisions and maintaining family health. It is essential for the nurse to involve the client's mother in teaching him about his prescribed medications as she may be responsible for his care and treatment decisions. While other family members may also be involved, the African American family is often matrifocal, emphasizing the importance of the mother's role. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to ensure the client's mother is present during medication teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the traditional African American family structure and the role of women in healthcare decisions.

4. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.

5. A client is scheduled to undergo a Papanicolaou (Pap) test in 1 week. Which statement does the nurse make to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.' The Pap test is used to screen for cervical cancer. It is not performed during menstruation or if a heavy infectious discharge is present. Before the test, the client should not douche, have intercourse, or insert anything into the vagina within 24 hours. Instructing the client to use pads instead of a tampon when menstruating can interfere with the test results due to the presence of blood. Douching before the exam is discouraged as it can alter the cervical cells' appearance, affecting the test's accuracy. Obtaining a sample of vaginal discharge for inspection is not a standard pre-Pap test instruction and is unnecessary for the test.

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