client self determination is the primary focus of
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

2024 PN NCLEX Questions

1. Client self-determination is the primary focus of:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Client self-determination is the primary focus of nursing's advocacy for clients. Nurses advocate for their clients' right to autonomy and self-determination, ensuring that the clients' preferences and choices are respected. Confidentiality, on the other hand, involves maintaining the privacy of the client and their information. Health care is a broad term encompassing various aspects of medical services. Malpractice insurance is a type of insurance that provides coverage for professionals in case of negligence or malpractice, not directly related to client self-determination.

2. A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.

3. While assisting with data collection, the client informs the nurse that he is having difficulty swallowing medications and food. The nurse gathers additional subjective data and documents that the client is experiencing which disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Dysphagia.' Dysphagia is the term used to indicate difficulty swallowing, which can occur in disorders of the throat or esophagus. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, not difficulty swallowing. Eructation is the medical term for belching, not difficulty swallowing. Pyrosis is heartburn, a burning sensation in the esophagus and stomach caused by the reflux of gastric acid, not difficulty swallowing.

4. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.

5. Which of these medications is least likely to cause tinnitus?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluoxetine. Among the options provided, Fluoxetine is the medication least likely to cause tinnitus. Gentamicin, Lasix, and Aspirin are known ototoxic medications that have a potential side effect of causing tinnitus, a ringing in the ear. Gentamicin is an antibiotic, Lasix is a diuretic, and Aspirin is a common pain reliever that can lead to tinnitus. In contrast, Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) primarily used as an antidepressant, and it has a lower risk of causing tinnitus compared to the other options.

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