Nursing Elites

1. The home health nurse has made a visit to an 85-year-old female client's home who has recently had surgery to replace her left knee. The client has been discharged from a rehab facility and has been able to walk on her own. The nurse assesses the need for teaching related to fall prevention. What should the nurse include in this teaching plan?

• A. The client should remove all scatter rugs from the floor and minimize clutter.
• B. The client should not limit her movement within the home unless advised by the physician.
• C. The client should have a raised toilet seat and grab bars available in the bathroom.
• D. The client should not wear a robe and socks while walking in the house.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to remove all scatter rugs from the floor and minimize clutter. Rugs and clutter are common causes of falls in the home, especially for the elderly or those with gait issues. Removing them can significantly reduce the risk of falls. While having a raised toilet seat and grab bars in the bathroom is important for safety, it is not the priority in this scenario. The client should not limit her movement within the home unless specifically advised by the physician, as maintaining mobility is essential for recovery. Lastly, the client should avoid wearing robes and socks while walking in the house to prevent tripping, slipping, or falling on slippery floors.

2. When caring for pediatric clients, the nurse should pay special attention to the psychosocial development stages credited to whom?

• A. Robert Peck
• B. Erik Erikson
• C. Sigmund Freud
• D. Jean Piaget

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erik Erikson is credited with the psychosocial development theory and eight stages. The nurse should consider these stages when caring for pediatric clients to evaluate their development. Jean Piaget is known for cognitive development, Sigmund Freud for psychosexual development, and Robert Peck for aging theory. Therefore, the correct answer is Erik Erikson.

3. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.

4. When testing the function of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, which parameter does a nurse check to determine their function?

• A. Tongue symmetry
• B. Eye movements
• C. Facial symmetry
• D. Corneal reflex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eye movements. When assessing the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, evaluating eye movements is crucial. This assessment includes checking the pupils for size, regularity, equality, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements in various gaze positions. Tongue symmetry is primarily used to evaluate cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve) function. Facial symmetry is a key indicator of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function. The corneal reflex assesses sensory afferents in cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) and motor efferents in cranial nerve VII (facial nerve).

5. When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:

• A. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse."?
• B. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse."?
• C. "The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5.3 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you."?
• D. "We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is to offer immediate guidance while also indicating when fertility counseling should be sought. While Choice A is technically correct as guidelines recommend seeking fertility counseling after 1 year of unprotected intercourse, it lacks providing immediate guidance. Choice B suggests seeking counseling after 6-9 months, which is earlier than the standard recommendation of 1 year. Choice C mentions the average time to conceive for someone of the client's age without addressing the client's current concern. Therefore, Choice D is the most appropriate response as it offers immediate guidance along with a plan for referral if needed.

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