Nursing Elites

1. What causes an older female client's hair to turn gray?

• A. ''A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.''
• B. ''The number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases in the normal aging process.''
• C. ''The skin on the scalp becomes thin, causing moisture to escape.''
• D. ''It is caused by hereditary factors.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.' Graying hair in older adults is primarily due to a decrease in the number of melanocytes responsible for providing pigment and hair color. This reduction in melanin production leads to gray hair. The other choices are incorrect. While it is true that the skin becomes thinner with aging and the number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases, these changes are not directly related to graying hair. Additionally, hereditary factors can influence when graying starts, but they do not cause the graying of hair itself.

2. After delivering a healthy newborn 1 hour ago, a nurse notes a woman's radial pulse rate is 55 beats/min. What action should the nurse take based on this finding?

• A. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider immediately
• B. Helping the woman stay in bed and rest
• C. Documenting the finding
• D. Performing active and passive range-of-motion exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After delivery, bradycardia (pulse rate 50-70 beats/min) may occur, reflecting the large amount of blood returning to the central circulation after delivery of the placenta. The increase in central circulation results in increased stroke volume, allowing a slower heart rate to provide adequate maternal circulation. A pulse rate of 55 beats/min falls within the normal range post-delivery, so there is no need to notify the healthcare provider immediately. It is important for the client to remain on bed rest in the immediate postpartum period to prevent complications. While range-of-motion exercises are beneficial for a client on bed rest, it is not the priority based on the data provided. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action is to document the finding for accurate record-keeping and monitoring of the client's condition.

3. An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?

• A. closure of the posterior fontanel.
• B. closure of the anterior fontanel.
• C. overlap of cranial bones.
• D. ossification of the sutures.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the anterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the anterior fontanel should be closed. The posterior fontanel should actually close by the age of 2 months, making choice A incorrect. Overlap of cranial bones is not a typical finding in a normal 10-month-old baby's skull, so choice C is incorrect. Ossification of the sutures is an ongoing process in skull development and should not be a definitive indicator at this age, making choice D incorrect.

4. A 4-year-old client is unable to go to sleep at night in the hospital. Which nursing intervention best promotes sleep for the child?

• A. turning out the room light and closing the door
• B. tiring the child during the evening with quiet activities
• C. identifying the child's home bedtime rituals and following them
• D. encouraging visitation by friends during the evening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 4-year-old client struggling to sleep in the hospital, it is essential to identify and replicate their home bedtime rituals. This familiarity can provide comfort and promote better sleep. Turning out the room light and closing the door (Choice A) might increase the child's fear by plunging the room into darkness, making it an incorrect choice. Tiring the child with quiet activities (Choice B) is incorrect as it may stimulate rather than calm the child. Encouraging visitation by friends (Choice D) can lead to increased excitement, hindering the child's ability to fall asleep instead of promoting a restful environment.

5. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?

• A. 1+ edema
• B. 2+ edema
• C. 3+ edema
• D. 4+ edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.

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