the lpn is taking care of a client who is on phenelzine nardil for depression which meal would the nurse encourage the client to avoid
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions

1. The LPN is taking care of a client who is on Phenelzine (Nardil) for depression. Which meal would the nurse encourage the client to avoid?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'prosciutto and cheese plate.' Phenelzine (Nardil) is an MAOI (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor), and clients on these drugs should avoid foods high in tyramine due to the risk of dangerous elevations in blood pressure. Prosciutto and aged cheeses are examples of foods rich in tyramine, so they should be avoided. Choices A, C, and D do not contain high levels of tyramine and are considered safe to consume while on Phenelzine.

2. Distribution of a drug to various tissues depends on the amount of cardiac output to each type of tissue. Which tissue would receive the highest amount of cardiac output and thus the highest amount of a drug?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The tissue that would receive the highest amount of cardiac output and thus the highest amount of a drug is the myocardium. Highly perfused tissues include vital organs like the brain, heart, kidneys, adrenal glands, and liver. The myocardium, being part of the heart, receives a significant amount of cardiac output. Choices A (skin) and B (adipose tissue) are poorly perfused tissues and would not receive high amounts of cardiac output. Choice C (skeletal muscle) is also less perfused compared to the myocardium.

3. A male client is learning about testicular self-examination (TSE) from a nurse. Which statement should the nurse make to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is 'If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.' During a shower or bath is the best time to examine the testes because warm temperatures make the testes hang lower in the scrotum. The testes should feel round and smooth, without lumps. Self-examination should be performed monthly to detect any abnormalities early. The physician needs to be notified immediately if any abnormal findings are noticed. Choice A is incorrect because the best time for TSE is during or after a warm shower or bath, not just before. Choice C is incorrect as the testicle should feel round, smooth, and without lumps, not egg-shaped and lumpy. Choice D is incorrect as monthly self-examinations are recommended, not every 2 months.

4. A multigravida pregnant woman asks the nurse when she will start to feel fetal movements. Around which week of gestation does the nurse tell the mother that fetal movements are first noticed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fetal movements (quickening) are first noticed by multigravida pregnant women at 16 to 20 weeks of gestation and gradually increase in frequency and strength. This is when the mother typically begins to feel the baby's movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fetal movements are not felt as early as 6, 8, or 12 weeks of gestation. At 6 weeks, the embryo's movements are not yet strong enough to be felt by the mother. By 8 weeks, the movements are still too subtle to be perceived. At 12 weeks, although fetal movements start, they are usually not strong enough to be felt by the mother.

5. During a routine office visit, which of the following developmental milestones should the nurse screen for in a 6-month-old child?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct developmental milestone for a 6-month-old child that should be screened during a routine office visit is rolling over. At this age, infants typically start rolling over from their stomach to their back and vice versa. Sitting up usually occurs between 7 and 8 months, creeping between 9 and 10 months, and standing while holding something between 8 and 10 months. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are developmentally appropriate but not typically expected at 6 months of age.

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