Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following would likely not impede learning?

• A. a client who took Ambien� an hour ago
• B. a bipolar client currently in a manic phase
• C. a client who states they are not interested
• D. a client with dysphagia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client who states they are not interested. While lack of interest can hinder learning motivation, it is not a physical or mental barrier that directly impacts the learning process. On the other hand, a client who took Ambien� an hour ago may experience drowsiness or impaired cognitive function, affecting their ability to learn. A bipolar client in a manic phase may exhibit symptoms such as racing thoughts, distractibility, and impulsivity, making it challenging for them to focus and engage in the learning process. A client with dysphagia may have difficulty swallowing, which can interfere with their ability to take oral medications or participate in activities that involve swallowing.

2. What is the primary theory that explains a family's concept of health and illness?

• A. Health Belief Model
• B. Education Factor
• C. Family Health Belief Model
• D. Family Dynamics Model

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Health Belief Model. The Health Belief Model is a widely recognized theory that explains individuals' perceptions and behaviors related to health and illness. It considers factors such as perceived susceptibility, severity of health issues, benefits of action, and barriers to taking action. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'Education Factor,' is too general and does not specifically address a family's concept of health and illness. Choice C, 'Family Health Belief Model,' is a combination of terms and not a recognized theory. Choice D, 'Family Dynamics Model,' focuses on family interactions rather than explaining a family's concept of health and illness.

3. When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?

• A. Hysterosalpingography
• B. Semen analysis
• C. Endometrial biopsy
• D. Transvaginal ultrasound

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Semen analysis is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a couple experiencing infertility. It is the least invasive of the listed tests, and since male factor infertility contributes to around 35% of cases, assessing semen parameters early is crucial. Hysterosalpingography is a radiographic test to evaluate tubal patency and uterine cavity abnormalities. Endometrial biopsy assesses endometrial receptivity post-ovulation. Transvaginal ultrasound is mainly used in infertility treatment to monitor follicle development, oocyte maturity, and luteal phase defects. Choices A, C, and D are more invasive, require specialized expertise, and are costlier. If semen analysis yields normal results, further tests may be warranted.

4. A nurse provides instructions to an older adult about measures to prevent heatstroke. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

• A. ''I should wear cool, light clothing in warm weather.''
• B. ''I need to wear a hat with a wide brim when I go outdoors.''
• C. ''I need to wear additional antiperspirant and deodorant in warm weather.''
• D. ''I should drink extra fluids during the summer.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: As an individual ages, the number of sweat glands decreases, resulting in reduced body odor and decreased evaporative heat loss due to less sweating. The need for antiperspirants and deodorants is reduced in older adults. Therefore, the statement 'I need to wear additional antiperspirant and deodorant in warm weather' indicates a need for further instruction. Older adults should focus on wearing cool, light clothing in warm weather to prevent overheating, wearing a hat with a wide brim when outdoors to protect from the sun's rays, and staying hydrated by drinking extra fluids during the summer. These measures are more effective in preventing heatstroke in older adults compared to using additional antiperspirants and deodorants, which are not necessary.

5. The LPN is about to give 100 mg Lopressor (metoprolol) to a client. Before administering the drug, they take the patient's vitals, which are as follows: Pulse: 58 Blood Pressure: 90/62 Respirations: 18/minute What action should the LPN take?

• A. Give the client half the prescribed dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• B. Give the client double the dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• C. Administer the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• D. Hold the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lopressor is given to treat hypertension, and a pulse of 58 and a blood pressure of 90/62 are considered low. To prevent the client from bottoming out, the drug should be held, and the findings reported to the RN, who should consult with the attending physician. LPNs should never adjust client dosing, as that is outside of their scope of practice. It is crucial to follow facility guidelines, which often recommend holding blood pressure medication at 60 bpm and a systolic pressure of 90 or less. By holding the drug and notifying the RN, the LPN ensures the client's safety and allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making by the healthcare team. Giving half the dose or double the dose without proper authorization can lead to serious complications and is considered unsafe practice.

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