Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following client groups should the nurse recognize as the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population?

• A. single, adult men
• B. single mothers with 2 or 3 children
• C. runaway adolescents
• D. single, adult women

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Single mothers with two or three children are indeed the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population. These families, where the majority of children are under the age of five, make up more than one-third of the homeless population in the United States. While single, adult men have traditionally been the largest group in the homeless population, single mothers with children have been increasing in numbers. Runaway adolescents, although a significant group of homeless children, do not represent the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population. Single, adult women are not specified as the fastest-growing segment.

2. When administering a nasal spray medication, what should the client do before the medication is administered?

• A. The client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered.
• B. The medication should be sprayed into the nostril.
• C. The medication should be administered as the client inhales.
• D. The client should sit upright when the medication is administered.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered. This step helps clear the nasal passages, ensuring that the medication can reach its intended target. Choice B is incorrect as the nasal spray should be directed into the nostril, not just in front of the nose. Administering the medication as the client inhales (Choice C) is crucial to ensure proper delivery, as it helps the medication reach the desired areas. Choice D is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright, not lying flat, when administering nasal spray medication to allow for better absorption and prevent the medication from flowing out.

3. A client can receive the Mumps, Measles, Rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:

• A. is pregnant.
• B. is immunocompromised.
• C. is allergic to neomycin.
• D. has a cold.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold without a fever since it does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine because the rubella component is a live virus that may cause birth defects and/or disease. Being allergic to neomycin is also a contraindication as per the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines. Individuals who have experienced anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine. Therefore, option D 'has a cold' is the correct choice, as the presence of a simple cold does not prevent the client from receiving the MMR vaccine.

4. A nurse assisting with data collection plans to assess tactile (vocal) fremitus. The nurse performs this by using which technique?

• A. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion
• B. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx
• C. Auscultating the breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields
• D. Palpating the thorax, comparing vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To assess tactile (vocal) fremitus, the nurse palpates the thorax and compares vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine.' This technique helps in evaluating the intensity and symmetry of vibrations felt. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion involves assessing the expansion of the chest during breathing by placing hands on the anterolateral wall. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx is done to assess bronchial breath sounds, while auscultating over the peripheral lung fields is used to assess vesicular breath sounds.

5. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?

• A. The client is allergic to strawberries
• B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
• C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
• D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 � 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.

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