NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. Which of the following client groups should the nurse recognize as the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population?
- A. single, adult men
- B. single mothers with 2 or 3 children
- C. runaway adolescents
- D. single, adult women
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Single mothers with two or three children are indeed the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population. These families, where the majority of children are under the age of five, make up more than one-third of the homeless population in the United States. While single, adult men have traditionally been the largest group in the homeless population, single mothers with children have been increasing in numbers. Runaway adolescents, although a significant group of homeless children, do not represent the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population. Single, adult women are not specified as the fastest-growing segment.
2. When caring for an elderly client and providing education, which of the following would be the least appropriate for the nurse to do?
- A. The nurse speaks loudly.
- B. The nurse allows additional time after each instruction to allow the client to process.
- C. The nurse provides supplemental written resources.
- D. The nurse breaks up the education into multiple shorter sessions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Speaking loudly is inappropriate when caring for an elderly client. It is essential to assess the client for a hearing impairment and provide appropriate assistance if needed. Elderly clients may require more time to process information due to slower reaction times, benefit from shorter sessions as they fatigue easily, and can absorb supplemental written resources effectively. Therefore, speaking loudly may not be conducive to effective communication and may not cater to the specific needs of the elderly client, unlike the other options provided.
3. While assisting with data collection regarding the neurological system, the nurse asks the client to puff out both cheeks. Which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?
- A. Vagus
- B. Facial
- C. Abducens
- D. Oculomotor
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facial. Assessment of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) involves noting mobility and symmetry as the client performs various facial movements, including puffing out the cheeks. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and cranial nerve X (vagus nerve) are tested together for different functions. The abducens, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves are assessed together for eye movements and pupil reactions, not cheek puffing.
4. A 37-year-old female client asks the nurse about contraception options and expresses interest in oral contraception pills. Which of the following statements would indicate that oral contraception is appropriate for this client?
- A. "I quit smoking last year, but I started again recently. Maybe I'll try to quit later this year."?
- B. "I am very diligent in taking my thyroid medications at the same time every day."?
- C. "I was hospitalized for deep vein thrombosis five years ago."?
- D. "I was recently diagnosed with breast cancer."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the statement mentioning a history of deep vein thrombosis five years ago. Oral contraceptives are generally not recommended for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis due to the increased risk of blood clots. Choice B, about being diligent in taking thyroid medications, does not directly relate to the safety of using oral contraceptives. Choice D, about a recent breast cancer diagnosis, would contraindicate the use of hormonal contraceptives. Choice A, mentioning a recent return to smoking, raises concerns about using hormonal contraceptives due to the increased risk of cardiovascular complications.
5. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 50 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.
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