Nursing Elites

1. When inspecting the client's eyelids for ptosis, the nurse is checking for which abnormality?

• A. Drooping
• B. Pupil dilation
• C. Pupil constriction
• D. Deviation of ocular movements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse inspects a client's eyelids for ptosis, they are checking for drooping. Ptosis is a condition characterized by the drooping of the eyelids and can be associated with various disorders such as myasthenia gravis, dysfunction of cranial nerve III, and Bell's palsy. Pupil dilation and constriction are assessed using a flashlight to check pupillary response. Deviation of ocular movements is evaluated by leading the client's eyes through the six cardinal positions of gaze. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct answer is 'Drooping' as it specifically relates to the abnormality associated with ptosis.

2. The nurse receives an order to administer phenytoin through the client's J-tube. The order instructs that tube feedings are stopped at least an hour prior to administering the medication and an hour after the medication is administered. Which of the following considerations may be a reason to discuss this order with the physician?

• A. The client has a history of Type II diabetes.
• B. The client is on a continuous tube-feeding regimen.
• C. The client is on fluid restriction.
• D. The pharmacy has provided phenytoin in tablet form.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client on a continuous tube-feeding regimen, stopping tube feedings for two hours to administer this medication may compromise the client's nutritional status. This interruption can lead to inadequate nutrient intake, affecting the client's overall nutritional well-being. The other choices are less relevant in this situation. Type II diabetes does not directly impact the administration of phenytoin through a J-tube. Fluid restriction would not prevent the temporary interruption of tube feedings for medication administration. The form of phenytoin provided by the pharmacy does not impact the need to discuss the order with the physician regarding the client's continuous tube-feeding regimen.

3. An adult client tells the clinic nurse that he is susceptible to middle ear infections. About which risk factor related to infection of the ears does the nurse question this client?

• A. Loud music
• B. Use of power tools
• C. Occupational noise
• D. Exposure to cigarette smoke

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exposure to cigarette smoke.' Otitis media (middle ear infection) is associated with various factors like colds, allergies, sore throats, and blockage of the eustachian tubes. Risk factors include exposure to cigarette smoke, youth (as otitis media is usually a childhood disease), congenital abnormalities, immune deficiencies, family history of otitis media, recent upper respiratory infections, and allergies. Choices A, B, and C (Loud music, Use of power tools, and Occupational noise) are more likely to cause hearing loss rather than being direct risk factors for middle ear infections.

4. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
• C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
• D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.

5. A healthcare professional is using an otoscope to inspect the ears of an adult client. Which action does the professional take before inserting the otoscope?

• A. Pulling the pinna up and back
• B. Pulling the pinna down and forward
• C. Tipping the client's head down and toward the examiner
• D. Tipping the client's head down and away from the examiner

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an adult client, the healthcare professional should pull the pinna up and back before inserting the otoscope. This action helps straighten the S shape of the ear canal, making it easier to insert the otoscope directly and comfortably. Tipping the client's head down and toward or away from the examiner is not the correct action when using an otoscope in an adult. Pulling the pinna down and forward is typically done when examining an infant or a child younger than 3 years old to straighten their ear canal for better visualization.

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