Nursing Elites

1. When inspecting the client's eyelids for ptosis, the nurse is checking for which abnormality?

• A. Drooping
• B. Pupil dilation
• C. Pupil constriction
• D. Deviation of ocular movements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse inspects a client's eyelids for ptosis, they are checking for drooping. Ptosis is a condition characterized by the drooping of the eyelids and can be associated with various disorders such as myasthenia gravis, dysfunction of cranial nerve III, and Bell's palsy. Pupil dilation and constriction are assessed using a flashlight to check pupillary response. Deviation of ocular movements is evaluated by leading the client's eyes through the six cardinal positions of gaze. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct answer is 'Drooping' as it specifically relates to the abnormality associated with ptosis.

2. A nurse is preparing to assess a client for the presence of the Tinel sign. Which action does the nurse take to elicit this sign?

• A. Testing for the strength of each muscle joint
• B. Percussing at the location of the median nerve
• C. Checking for repetitive movements in the joints
• D. Asking the client to flex the wrist 90 degrees while holding the hands back to back

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Tinel sign is elicited by percussing at the location of the median nerve at the wrist. In carpal tunnel syndrome, this test can produce burning and tingling along the nerve's distribution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Testing for the strength of each muscle joint and checking for repetitive movements in the joints involve different assessments unrelated to the Tinel sign. Asking the client to flex the wrist 90 degrees while holding the hands back to back is associated with the Phalen test, which is another evaluation for carpal tunnel syndrome.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of an older client with presbycusis. Which finding would the nurse expect to note in the client's record?

• A. Difficulty hearing whispered words in the voice test
• B. Improved hearing ability during conversational speech
• C. Unilateral conductive hearing loss
• D. Difficulty hearing low-pitched tones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Presbycusis, a sensorineural hearing loss, is the most common form of hearing loss in older adults. Typically, the loss is bilateral, resulting in difficulty hearing high-pitched tones. The condition is revealed when the client has difficulty hearing whispered words in the voice test and consonants during conversational speech. Choice A is correct because it reflects the expected finding in presbycusis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because presbycusis does not result in improved hearing ability during conversational speech, unilateral conductive hearing loss, or difficulty hearing low-pitched tones.

4. A pregnant client is being educated by a nurse on nutrition and foods rich in folic acid. Which food item does the nurse inform the client contains the highest amount of folic acid?

• A. Pinto beans
• B. Lettuce
• C. Oranges
• D. Broccoli

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pinto beans contain the highest amount of folic acid among the options provided, with 294 mcg per 1-cup serving. Oranges contain 44 mcg per 1-cup serving, lettuce contains 60 mcg per 1-cup serving, and broccoli contains 78 mcg per 1-cup serving. Therefore, pinto beans are the best choice for increasing folic acid intake during pregnancy. Choosing oranges, lettuce, or broccoli would not provide as much folic acid compared to pinto beans, making them less optimal choices for meeting folic acid requirements during pregnancy.

5. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

• A. 100 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 200 mL/hr
• D. 50 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

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