Nursing Elites

1. When inspecting the client's eyelids for ptosis, the nurse is checking for which abnormality?

• A. Drooping
• B. Pupil dilation
• C. Pupil constriction
• D. Deviation of ocular movements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse inspects a client's eyelids for ptosis, they are checking for drooping. Ptosis is a condition characterized by the drooping of the eyelids and can be associated with various disorders such as myasthenia gravis, dysfunction of cranial nerve III, and Bell's palsy. Pupil dilation and constriction are assessed using a flashlight to check pupillary response. Deviation of ocular movements is evaluated by leading the client's eyes through the six cardinal positions of gaze. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct answer is 'Drooping' as it specifically relates to the abnormality associated with ptosis.

2. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client in the labor unit who suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. On inspecting the amniotic fluid, the nurse notes that it is clear, with creamy white flecks. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take based on this finding?

• A. Check the client's temperature.
• B. Report the findings to the nurse-midwife.
• C. Obtain a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis.
• D. Document the findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Therefore, the nurse would most appropriately document the findings. Checking the client's temperature, reporting the findings to the nurse-midwife, and obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis are not necessary in this situation. Cloudy, yellow, or foul-smelling amniotic fluid suggests infection, while green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. If abnormalities are noted, the nurse should notify the nurse-midwife.

3. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

• A. 100 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 200 mL/hr
• D. 50 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

4. When teaching a woman about possible side effects of hormone replacement therapy, the nurse should include information about all of the following except:

• A. Hypoglycemia in diabetic women.
• B. The possible return of monthly menses when taking combination hormones.
• C. Increased risk of gallbladder disease.
• D. Increased risk of breast, cervical, and ovarian cancer with long-term use.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia in diabetic women.' When educating a woman about hormone replacement therapy, it is important to discuss the possible side effects. It is true that monthly menses might return when taking combination hormones, as the progestin can cause this. Additionally, there is an increased risk of gallbladder disease associated with hormone replacement therapy. Furthermore, long-term use of hormone replacement therapy is linked to an increased risk of breast, cervical, and ovarian cancer. However, hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of hormone replacement therapy, especially in diabetic women. In fact, estrogen can have a positive impact on glucose control in some cases, so hypoglycemia would not be a typical concern.

5. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.

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