Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assisting with data collection of a client gathers both subjective and objective data. Which finding would the nurse document as subjective data?

• A. The client appears anxious.
• B. Blood pressure is 170/80 mm Hg.
• C. The client states that he has a rash.
• D. The client has diminished reflexes in the legs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subjective data are information provided by the client about their symptoms, feelings, or experiences. In this case, the client reporting having a rash is subjective data because it is based on what the client says. Choices A, B, and D involve observations or measurements made by the nurse (anxious appearance, blood pressure, reflexes), which fall under objective data. Objective data are observable and measurable data obtained through physical examination, vital signs assessment, and laboratory tests.

2. A client with peripheral artery disease tells the nurse that pain develops in his left calf when he is walking and subsides with rest. The nurse documents that the client is most likely experiencing which disorder?

• A. Venous insufficiency
• B. Intermittent claudication
• C. Sore muscles from overexertion
• D. Muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leg pain characteristic of peripheral artery disease is known as intermittent claudication. The client can walk only a certain distance before cramping, burning, muscle discomfort, or pain forces them to stop, with the pain subsiding after rest. The pain is reproducible, and as the disease progresses, the client can walk shorter distances before the pain recurs. Ultimately, pain may even occur at rest. Venous insufficiency (Choice A) involves impaired blood flow in the veins, leading to swelling and skin changes but not typically pain associated with exercise. Sore muscles from overexertion (Choice C) and muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems (Choice D) do not present with the characteristic pattern of pain associated with peripheral artery disease.

3. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' If an 11-12-month-old child is unable to pull to a standing position, it can indicate a risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By 15 months of age, children should be walking, so delayed standing can be a red flag. The Trendelenburg sign is associated with gluteus medius muscle weakness, not hip dysplasia, making choice C incorrect. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital hip subluxation or dislocation, not developmental dysplasia, making choice D incorrect.

4. A nurse assisting with data collection plans to assess tactile (vocal) fremitus. The nurse performs this by using which technique?

• A. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion
• B. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx
• C. Auscultating the breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields
• D. Palpating the thorax, comparing vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To assess tactile (vocal) fremitus, the nurse palpates the thorax and compares vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine.' This technique helps in evaluating the intensity and symmetry of vibrations felt. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion involves assessing the expansion of the chest during breathing by placing hands on the anterolateral wall. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx is done to assess bronchial breath sounds, while auscultating over the peripheral lung fields is used to assess vesicular breath sounds.

5. Quality is defined as a combination of all of the following except:

• A. conforming to standards.
• B. performing at the minimally acceptable level.
• C. meeting or exceeding customer requirements.
• D. exceeding customer expectations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'performing at the minimally acceptable level.' Quality is about meeting or exceeding customer requirements and expectations, as well as conforming to standards. The term 'performing at the minimally acceptable level' implies just meeting the minimum requirements, which falls short of the comprehensive definition of quality in terms of customer satisfaction and excellence. Therefore, this choice is the exception when defining quality. Choices A, C, and D align with the definition of quality as they all involve meeting or surpassing certain criteria for customer satisfaction and product excellence, which are essential components of quality management.

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