Nursing Elites

1. Central venous access devices (CVADs) are frequently utilized to administer chemotherapy. What is an advantage of using CVADs for chemotherapeutic agent administration?

• A. CVADs are more expensive than a peripheral IV.
• B. Weekly administration is possible.
• C. Chemotherapeutic agents can be caustic to smaller veins.
• D. The client or family can administer the drug at home.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct advantage of using CVADs for chemotherapeutic agent administration is that chemotherapeutic agents can be caustic to smaller veins. Many chemotherapeutic drugs are vesicants, which can cause tissue damage even in low concentrations. Using a CVAD to administer these agents into a large vein is optimal as it reduces the risk of damage. Choice A is incorrect as CVADs are actually more expensive than a peripheral IV, making it a disadvantage. Choice B is incorrect because the frequency of administration depends on the specific drug being administered, not on the access device, so it does not represent a universal advantage. Choice D is incorrect because IV chemotherapeutic agents are typically not self-administered at home; they are usually given in a hospital, outpatient, or clinic setting, making it an invalid advantage of using CVADs.

2. Which of these medications is least likely to cause tinnitus?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Lasix
• C. Gentamicin
• D. Fluoxetine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluoxetine. Among the options provided, Fluoxetine is the medication least likely to cause tinnitus. Gentamicin, Lasix, and Aspirin are known ototoxic medications that have a potential side effect of causing tinnitus, a ringing in the ear. Gentamicin is an antibiotic, Lasix is a diuretic, and Aspirin is a common pain reliever that can lead to tinnitus. In contrast, Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) primarily used as an antidepressant, and it has a lower risk of causing tinnitus compared to the other options.

3. What is a chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption known as?

• A. a drug incompatibility
• B. a side effect
• C. an adverse event
• D. an allergic response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption is termed a drug incompatibility. This phenomenon commonly occurs when drug solutions are mixed before intravenous administration but can also happen with orally administered drugs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because side effects, adverse events, and allergic responses typically occur after the drugs have been administered and absorbed, not before.

4. A nurse is trying to motivate a client toward more effective management of a therapeutic regimen. Which of the following actions by the nurse is most likely to be effective in increasing the client's motivation?

• A. determining if the client has any family or friends living nearby
• B. developing a concise discharge plan and reviewing it with the client
• C. teaching the client about the disorder at the client's level of understanding
• D. making a referral to an area agency for client follow-up

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To effectively motivate the client, it is important to educate them about the disorder at their level of understanding. This helps the client comprehend the importance of the therapeutic regimen and empowers them to actively participate in their treatment. Choice A, determining if the client has any family or friends living nearby, may provide social support but is less likely to directly impact the client's motivation compared to educating them about their condition. Developing a concise discharge plan, as in choice B, is crucial for continuity of care but may not directly enhance the client's motivation as effectively as providing education tailored to their level of understanding. Making a referral for follow-up, as in choice D, is important for ongoing care but may not have the same immediate impact on the client's motivation as educating them about their condition.

5. During a genital examination of a male client, a nurse notices wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. What should the nurse do based on this finding?

• A. Documents the normal finding
• B. Checks for penile discharge, as this indicates infection
• C. Palpates for a mass in the scrotum, as wrinkling suggests the presence of one
• D. Obtains additional subjective data from the client, focusing on the scrotal abnormality

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The penile skin typically appears wrinkled and hairless, without lesions, during a normal examination. Also, the scrotal skin naturally has a wrinkled appearance known as rugae. It is common for the left half of the scrotum to be positioned lower than the right, indicating normal asymmetry. Given these normal variations, the nurse should document the finding of wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. Checking for penile discharge or palpating for a mass in the scrotum is not indicated based on the presence of wrinkled skin, as this is a normal finding. Obtaining additional subjective data focusing on a scrotal abnormality is unnecessary since the wrinkled appearance is typical.

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