Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing the dental status of an 18-month-old child. How many teeth should the nurse expect to examine?

• A. 6
• B. 8
• C. 12
• D. 16

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An 18-month-old child should have approximately 12 teeth. In general, children begin dentition around 6 months of age. During the first 2 years of life, a quick guide to the number of teeth a child should have is as follows: Subtract the number 6 from the number of months in the age of the child. In this example, the child is 18 months old, so the formula is 18 - 6 = 12. The correct answer is 12. Choice A (6) is incorrect as it does not consider the child's age. Choices B (8) and D (16) are incorrect as they do not align with the dental development timeline and the specific age of the child in question.

2. A client with Kawasaki disease has bilateral congestion of the conjunctivae, dry cracked lips, a strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet followed by desquamation of fingers and toes. Which of the following nursing measures is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image?

• A. administering immune globulin intravenously
• B. assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours
• C. explaining progression of the disease to the client and their family
• D. assessing heart sounds and rhythm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Explaining the progression of the disease to the client and their family is the most appropriate nursing measure to promote a positive body image. By educating them about when symptoms are expected to improve and resolve, they can understand that there will be no permanent disruption in physical appearance that could negatively impact body image. While administering immune globulin intravenously may be part of the treatment for Kawasaki disease, it does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours is important for monitoring the disease but does not directly impact body image. Assessing heart sounds and rhythm is crucial for monitoring cardiac effects of Kawasaki disease but is not directly related to promoting a positive body image.

3. If Ms. Barrett's distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?

• A. The client can read from 20' what a person with normal vision can read at 30'.
• B. The client can read from 30' what a person with normal vision can read at 20'.
• C. The client can read the entire chart from 30'.
• D. The client can read the chart from 20' with the left eye and from 30' with the right eye.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When Ms. Barrett's distance vision is measured as 20/30, it means that she can read from 20 feet away what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet. The numerator (20) represents the distance in feet between the chart and the client, while the denominator (30) indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. In this case, Ms. Barrett's vision is slightly worse than normal, as she needs to be closer to the chart to read it clearly. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Choice B reverses the distances, Choice C assumes the client can read the entire chart from 30 feet, and Choice D introduces information not related to the 20/30 measurement.

4. A nurse in the newborn nursery, assisting with data collection for a newborn, prepares to measure the chest circumference. The nurse places the tape measure around the infant at which location?

• A. In the axillary area
• B. At the level of the nipples
• C. Two inches below the nipples
• D. At the level of the umbilicus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The chest circumference of the infant is measured at the level of the nipples. It is usually 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head circumference. The average chest circumference is 30.5 to 33 cm (12-13 inches). When there is molding of the head, the head and chest measurements may be equal at birth. Placing the tape measure at the level of the nipples ensures accuracy and consistency in newborn assessment. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as the chest circumference is specifically measured at the level of the nipples to obtain precise measurements.

5. A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

• A. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows and looking for symmetry
• B. Asking the client to clench the teeth, then palpating the masseter muscles just above the mandibular angle
• C. Asking the client to close the eyes and then identify light and sharp touch with a cotton ball and a pin on both sides of the face
• D. Asking the client to close their eyes and then indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse brings the watch closer to the client's ear

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII), the nurse should have the client close their eyes and indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse moves the watch closer to the client's ear. This action assesses the client's ability to perceive auditory stimuli, as the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve is responsible for hearing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows to check for symmetry is a method to test the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Asking the client to clench their teeth and palpating the masseter muscles tests the motor component of the trigeminal nerve. Having the client identify light and sharp touch on both sides of the face is a way to test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).

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