Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary nutritional deficiency of concern for a strict vegetarian?

• A. vitamin C
• B. vitamin B12
• C. vitamin E
• D. magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Vitamin B12 is the primary nutritional deficiency of concern for a strict vegetarian. While all mentioned vitamins are essential for overall health, vitamin B12 is particularly important for vegetarians as it is mainly found in animal products. A strict vegetarian diet may lack sufficient vitamin B12 intake, leading to potential health issues like anemia and neurological problems. Vitamin C deficiency is more commonly associated with scurvy, which is preventable with a diet rich in fruits and vegetables. Vitamin E deficiency is rare and usually only seen in specific medical conditions. Magnesium deficiency is not typically a primary concern for strict vegetarians as magnesium can be obtained from a variety of plant-based sources.

2. A nurse helps a young adult conduct a personal lifestyle assessment. The nurse carefully reviews the assessment with the young adult for which reason?

• A. Young adults may ignore physical symptoms and postpone seeking health care
• B. Young adults are unable to afford health insurance
• C. Young adults are at risk for a serious illness
• D. Young adults are exposed to hazardous substances

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The corrected answer is A: Young adults may ignore physical symptoms and postpone seeking health care. Young adults are usually quite active, experience severe illnesses less commonly than members of older age groups, tend to ignore physical symptoms, and often postpone seeking health care. Clients in this developmental stage may benefit from a personal lifestyle assessment to identify habits that increase the risk for various chronic diseases. Choice B is incorrect because the ability to afford health insurance is not the primary reason for conducting a personal lifestyle assessment. Choice C is incorrect because young adults are not inherently at higher risk for serious illness compared to other age groups. Choice D is incorrect because exposure to hazardous substances is not the main focus when conducting a personal lifestyle assessment.

3. How often should the nurse change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions?

• A. every 24 hours
• B. every 36 hours
• C. every 48 hours
• D. every 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'every 24 hours.' Changing the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours is crucial due to the high risk of bacterial growth. Bacterial contamination can lead to serious infections in patients receiving total parenteral nutrition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals between tubing changes increases the risk of bacterial contamination and infection, compromising patient safety. It is essential to maintain a strict 24-hour schedule to minimize the risk of complications associated with bacterial contamination.

4. During a routine health screening for a 1-year-old child, what is the most critical topic for the nurse to discuss with the parents?

• A. the potential hazards of accidents
• B. appropriate nutrition now that the child has been weaned from breastfeeding
• C. toilet training
• D. how to purchase appropriate shoes now that the child is walking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a routine health screening for a 1-year-old child, the most critical topic for the nurse to discuss with the parents is the potential hazards of accidents. Accidents are the primary source of injury in children and can be life-threatening. Discussions about appropriate nutrition should have been addressed during the weaning process, while the purchase of appropriate shoes is important but not life-threatening. Toilet training typically begins around 2 years of age, so 1 year of age is too early to discuss it. Therefore, the focus should be on educating parents about accident prevention to ensure the child's safety and well-being.

5. A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?

• A. Continuing to check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes
• B. Notifying the registered nurse immediately
• C. Checking the client's uterine fundus
• D. Documenting the vital signs in the client's medical record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.

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