Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary nutritional deficiency of concern for a strict vegetarian?

• A. vitamin C
• B. vitamin B12
• C. vitamin E
• D. magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Vitamin B12 is the primary nutritional deficiency of concern for a strict vegetarian. While all mentioned vitamins are essential for overall health, vitamin B12 is particularly important for vegetarians as it is mainly found in animal products. A strict vegetarian diet may lack sufficient vitamin B12 intake, leading to potential health issues like anemia and neurological problems. Vitamin C deficiency is more commonly associated with scurvy, which is preventable with a diet rich in fruits and vegetables. Vitamin E deficiency is rare and usually only seen in specific medical conditions. Magnesium deficiency is not typically a primary concern for strict vegetarians as magnesium can be obtained from a variety of plant-based sources.

2. When should rehabilitation services begin?

• A. when the client enters the health care system.
• B. after the client requests rehabilitation services.
• C. after the client's physical condition stabilizes.
• D. when the client is discharged from the hospital.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rehabilitation services should begin when the client enters the health care system to ensure early intervention and optimal outcomes. Initiating rehabilitation early can prevent complications, maximize recovery potential, and improve overall health outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because delaying rehabilitation until the client requests it may result in missed opportunities for timely intervention. Choice C is incorrect as waiting for the client's physical condition to stabilize can lead to unnecessary delays in starting the rehabilitation process, potentially slowing down recovery progress. Choice D is incorrect because starting rehabilitation only after discharge can hinder the recovery process by missing out on crucial early stages of intervention and support.

3. A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

• A. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows and looking for symmetry
• B. Asking the client to clench the teeth, then palpating the masseter muscles just above the mandibular angle
• C. Asking the client to close the eyes and then identify light and sharp touch with a cotton ball and a pin on both sides of the face
• D. Asking the client to close their eyes and then indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse brings the watch closer to the client's ear

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII), the nurse should have the client close their eyes and indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse moves the watch closer to the client's ear. This action assesses the client's ability to perceive auditory stimuli, as the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve is responsible for hearing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows to check for symmetry is a method to test the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Asking the client to clench their teeth and palpating the masseter muscles tests the motor component of the trigeminal nerve. Having the client identify light and sharp touch on both sides of the face is a way to test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).

4. When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:

• A. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse."?
• B. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse."?
• C. "The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5.3 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you."?
• D. "We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is to offer immediate guidance while also indicating when fertility counseling should be sought. While Choice A is technically correct as guidelines recommend seeking fertility counseling after 1 year of unprotected intercourse, it lacks providing immediate guidance. Choice B suggests seeking counseling after 6-9 months, which is earlier than the standard recommendation of 1 year. Choice C mentions the average time to conceive for someone of the client's age without addressing the client's current concern. Therefore, Choice D is the most appropriate response as it offers immediate guidance along with a plan for referral if needed.

5. The LPN is taking care of a 176-pound client who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. The primary healthcare provider has written an order for Lantus� (insulin glargine injection) 100 units/mL, using weight-based dosing of 0.2 units/kg per day. The LPN should prepare ____ units for administration.

• A. 12
• B. 35
• C. 16
• D. 9

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms. As 1 kg = 2.2 pounds, 176 pounds � 2.2 = 80 kg. The client should receive 0.2 units for every kilogram, which equals 16 units. Therefore, the total amount to prepare is 16 units x 100 units/mL = 1600 units. Considering the medication concentration of 100 units/mL, 1600 units � 100 units/mL = 16 mL. However, since the question asks for the number of units, the final answer is 16 units x 2 injections = 32 units. Therefore, the LPN should prepare 32 units for administration.

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