Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

2. A mother has come to the pediatric clinic concerned about the recent outbreak of West Nile Virus. The ages of her children are 5, 7, and 10. The mother has asked the nurse what she can do to prevent her children from contracting this illness. Which piece of information is best to provide the mother with?

• A. The children should wear long sleeves and long pants while outside.
• B. Apply insect repellent containing DEET when the children are outside.
• C. Remove standing water from the property.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best advice to provide to the mother is 'All of the above.' It is recommended that the children wear insect repellent containing DEET and long-sleeved shirts and long pants when they are outside. This helps in preventing mosquito bites, which can transmit the West Nile Virus. Additionally, removing standing water from areas where the children play can help decrease the number of breeding mosquitoes, reducing the risk of contracting the virus. These methods work in combination to provide effective prevention against the West Nile Virus, making 'All of the above' the correct choice. Choices A, B, and C individually address important prevention measures, but a combination of all three strategies is the most comprehensive approach to protect the children from contracting the illness.

3. When discussing birth control methods with a client, what major factor should a nurse focus on to provide the motivation needed for consistent implementation of a birth control method?

• A. Personal preference
• B. Work and home schedules
• C. Family planning goals
• D. Desire to have children in the future

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When discussing birth control methods with a client, a nurse should focus on the client's personal preference as a major factor that will provide the motivation needed for consistent implementation of a birth control method. Personal preference plays a key role in ensuring that the chosen method aligns with the client's lifestyle and values, increasing the likelihood of adherence. While work and home schedules, family planning goals, and the desire to have children in the future can influence the choice of birth control method, they are not the primary motivating factors for consistent implementation. Personal preference is crucial as it empowers the client to select a method that suits their individual needs and preferences, ultimately leading to better compliance and effectiveness.

4. When reviewing a client's medical notes to confirm pregnancy, a nurse should look for which finding to determine that pregnancy is confirmed?

• A. Amenorrhea
• B. Thinning of the cervix
• C. Palpable fetal movement
• D. Positive result on a home urine test for pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To confirm pregnancy, the presence of palpable fetal movement is a positive indicator. Palpable fetal movement is a certain sign of pregnancy, known as a fetal movement felt by the examiner. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy as it is reported by the woman but is not confirmatory. Thinning of the cervix (Hegar sign) is a probable sign of pregnancy, which is not confirmatory. A positive result on a home urine test for pregnancy is also a probable indicator. However, a positive pregnancy test result can sometimes yield false-positive results due to various factors like medication, recent pregnancy, or errors in reading.

5. A nurse assisting with data collection of the peripheral vascular system performs the Allen test. The nurse understands that this test is used to determine the patency of which blood vessel(s)?

• A. Capillaries
• B. Pedal pulses
• C. Femoral arteries
• D. Radial and ulnar arteries

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse performs the Allen test to determine the patency of the radial and ulnar arteries. During the test, the nurse applies pressure over the client's ulnar and radial arteries simultaneously. The client is then asked to open and close the hand repeatedly, causing the hand to blanch. Subsequently, the nurse releases pressure from the ulnar artery while compressing the radial artery and checks the color of the extremity distal to the pressure point. If pinkness fails to return within 6 seconds, it indicates that the ulnar artery is insufficient, suggesting that the radial artery should not be used for obtaining a blood specimen. Choice A (Capillaries) is incorrect as the Allen test assesses the patency of larger arteries, not capillaries. Choice B (Pedal pulses) is incorrect as the Allen test specifically evaluates the radial and ulnar arteries, not the pedal pulses in the foot. Choice C (Femoral arteries) is incorrect as the Allen test focuses on the radial and ulnar arteries in the hand, not the femoral arteries in the leg.

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