NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?
- A. Clozapine
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Ondansetron
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.
2. When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:
- A. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse."?
- B. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse."?
- C. "The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5.3 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you."?
- D. "We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is to offer immediate guidance while also indicating when fertility counseling should be sought. While Choice A is technically correct as guidelines recommend seeking fertility counseling after 1 year of unprotected intercourse, it lacks providing immediate guidance. Choice B suggests seeking counseling after 6-9 months, which is earlier than the standard recommendation of 1 year. Choice C mentions the average time to conceive for someone of the client's age without addressing the client's current concern. Therefore, Choice D is the most appropriate response as it offers immediate guidance along with a plan for referral if needed.
3. Which of the following vaccines contains a live virus?
- A. varicella
- B. IPV
- C. DTaP
- D. hepatitis B
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is varicella. Varicella vaccine contains a live, weakened form of the varicella-zoster virus. Choice B, IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine), is an inactivated vaccine, not a live virus vaccine. Choices C and D, DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis vaccine) and hepatitis B vaccine, respectively, do not contain live viruses. Varicella is the only live virus vaccine among the options.
4. When educating an obese client about nutritional needs and weight loss, which of the following should not be included?
- A. knowledge of food and food products
- B. development of a positive mental attitude
- C. adequate exercise
- D. starting a fast weight-loss diet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When educating an obese client about nutritional needs and weight loss, it is important to cover factors such as knowledge of food and food products, the development of a positive mental attitude, and the importance of adequate exercise. These aspects contribute to a holistic approach to weight management. However, recommending the client to start a fast weight-loss diet should not be included. Fast weight-loss diets can be harmful, leading to health risks, nutrient deficiencies, and unsustainable outcomes. It is crucial to advocate for gradual, sustainable weight loss strategies to ensure long-term success and overall well-being. Therefore, starting a fast weight-loss diet is the least appropriate option among the choices provided.
5. Which of the following is most likely to impact the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia?
- A. immobility
- B. altered growth and development
- C. hemarthrosis
- D. altered family processes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Altered Family Processes is a significant factor that can impact the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia. Infants are highly sensitive to the reactions of their caregivers, and a new diagnosis like Hemophilia can introduce stress and uncertainties into the family dynamics. This can affect the infant's sense of security, trust development, and how they perceive themselves. Immobility, while a potential long-term effect of Hemophilia, is not the immediate impact on body image for a newly diagnosed infant. Altered growth and development would take time to manifest and would not be an immediate concern after a recent diagnosis. Hemarthrosis, although a characteristic symptom of Hemophilia, is a physical manifestation rather than a direct influence on body image perception in a newly diagnosed infant.
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