Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

2. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

3. In the context of diagnostic genetic counseling, which of the following choices is typically not made by clients?

• A. Terminating the pregnancy.
• B. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs.
• C. Accessing support services before the birth.
• D. Completing the grieving process before the birth.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diagnostic genetic counseling, clients may face difficult decisions based on test results. Terminating the pregnancy is a choice some clients may consider if severe abnormalities are detected. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs involves getting ready to care for a child who may require extra attention and support. Accessing support services before the birth can help clients connect with resources and professionals for assistance during and after the pregnancy. Completing the grieving process before birth is not typically a choice made in the context of genetic counseling. The grieving process often starts or continues after distressing results and can extend beyond the birth of the child. Therefore, the correct answer is completing the grieving process before the birth.

4. The LPN is taking care of a client with a documented allergy to Penicillin. After rounds, the LPN notices that the client has an order for Cefazolin. Which of the following actions would be the least appropriate?

• A. The LPN clarifies the severity of the Penicillin allergy.
• B. The LPN discusses the order with the care team prior to administering Cefazolin.
• C. The LPN administers all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin.
• D. The LPN monitors the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is administered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least appropriate action is for the LPN to administer all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin. The LPN should always consider the client's documented allergy to Penicillin seriously. It is crucial to discuss the order with the care team before administering Cefazolin to ensure patient safety. Administering a medication that could potentially cause harm due to a documented allergy is unsafe practice. While monitoring the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is important, it should not precede clarification with the care team regarding the allergy and the appropriateness of the medication. Therefore, withholding the Cefazolin is the most appropriate action in this scenario.

5. A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?

• A. Continuing to check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes
• B. Notifying the registered nurse immediately
• C. Checking the client's uterine fundus
• D. Documenting the vital signs in the client's medical record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.

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