Nursing Elites

1. During the examination of a client's throat, a nurse touches the posterior wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents normal function of which cranial nerves?

• A. Cranial nerves V and VI
• B. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• C. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
• D. Cranial nerves IX and X

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). When the nurse touches the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex, it indicates normal function of these nerves. Cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VI (abducens nerve) are not directly responsible for the gag reflex. Cranial nerves XII (hypoglossal nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are not directly involved in eliciting the gag reflex. Testing cranial nerve I involves smell function, and cranial nerve II is related to eye examinations, making them irrelevant in this scenario.

2. A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:

• A. climacteric
• B. menopause
• C. perimenopause
• D. postmenopause

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Perimenopause refers to a period in which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. It typically lasts around five years. In the case of the middle-aged woman experiencing irregular menses for six months, she aligns with perimenopause as it involves irregular menstrual cycles, one of the common symptoms during this transitional phase. Climacteric is a term describing the period of life with physiologic changes leading to the end of a woman's reproductive ability but not specifically characterized by irregular menses. Menopause marks the permanent cessation of menses and does not involve the transitional irregularities seen in perimenopause. Postmenopause is the phase after the completion of menopausal changes.

3. While assessing a client’s skin, the nurse notes the presence of several large red-blue and purple areas on the client’s body that do not blanch when pressure is applied. The nurse documents this finding using which term?

• A. Psoriasis
• B. Anasarca
• C. Petechiae
• D. Ecchymosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ecchymosis refers to a large patch of capillary bleeding into the tissues, commonly known as a bruise. The color of such an area changes from red-blue or purple to green, yellow, and brown before the area disappears. Pressure on the area will not cause it to blanch. Psoriasis is characterized by scaly erythematous patches with silvery scales on top, usually found on specific areas like the scalp, elbows, knees, low back, and anogenital area. Anasarca is bilateral or generalized edema, indicating a central problem like congestive heart failure or kidney failure. Petechiae are tiny purple or red spots resulting from tiny hemorrhages within the dermal and subdermal areas. Therefore, in this case, the correct term to document the described finding is Ecchymosis.

4. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' If an 11-12-month-old child is unable to pull to a standing position, it can indicate a risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By 15 months of age, children should be walking, so delayed standing can be a red flag. The Trendelenburg sign is associated with gluteus medius muscle weakness, not hip dysplasia, making choice C incorrect. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital hip subluxation or dislocation, not developmental dysplasia, making choice D incorrect.

5. A nurse is assisting with data collection on an older client who will be seen by a physician in a health care clinic. When the nurse asks the client about sexual and reproductive function, the client reports concern about sexual dysfunction. What should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Document the client's concern in the medical record.
• B. Report the client's concern to the health care provider.
• C. Tell the client that sexual dysfunction is not a normal age-related change.
• D. Ask the client about medications he is taking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is not a normal process of aging. The prevalence of chronic illness and medication use is higher among older adults than in the younger population. Illnesses and medications can interfere with the normal sexual function of older men and women. It is crucial to assess the medications the client is taking as they could be contributing to the reported sexual dysfunction. While documenting the concern and informing the healthcare provider are important steps, the immediate priority is to gather information on the medications that could be impacting the client's sexual function. Therefore, the nurse's next action should be to ask the client about the medications he is taking.

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