Nursing Elites

1. All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:

• A. high infant mortality rate
• B. frequent use of Emergency Departments
• C. consultation with folk healers
• D. low incidence of dental problems

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Factors correlated with poverty often include a high infant mortality rate, frequent use of Emergency Departments, and consultation with folk healers, as these indicate limited access to healthcare. Dental problems are prevalent in poverty due to a lack of preventive care and access to treatments. High infant mortality is a significant issue linked with poverty as it reflects poor healthcare access. Families in poverty might resort to Emergency Departments for healthcare due to financial barriers. Consulting folk healers is common in communities with limited access to formal healthcare. However, a low incidence of dental problems is less likely in impoverished families due to the lack of preventive services and the presence of other health issues.

2. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

3. When inspecting the client's eyelids for ptosis, the nurse is checking for which abnormality?

• A. Drooping
• B. Pupil dilation
• C. Pupil constriction
• D. Deviation of ocular movements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse inspects a client's eyelids for ptosis, they are checking for drooping. Ptosis is a condition characterized by the drooping of the eyelids and can be associated with various disorders such as myasthenia gravis, dysfunction of cranial nerve III, and Bell's palsy. Pupil dilation and constriction are assessed using a flashlight to check pupillary response. Deviation of ocular movements is evaluated by leading the client's eyes through the six cardinal positions of gaze. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct answer is 'Drooping' as it specifically relates to the abnormality associated with ptosis.

4. A client in labor complains of back discomfort. Which position will best aid in relieving the discomfort? What position should the nurse encourage the mother to assume?

• A. Prone
• B. Standing
• C. Supine
• D. Hands and knees

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During back labor, when the back of the fetal head puts pressure on the woman's sacral promontory, the hands-and-knees position is encouraged. This position helps the fetus move away from the sacral promontory, reducing back pain and enhancing the internal-rotation mechanism of labor. A prone position would be difficult for the woman to assume and not helpful in relieving back discomfort. The supine position is risky due to supine hypotension, while standing may increase pressure, worsening backache.

5. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?

• A. 1+ edema
• B. 2+ edema
• C. 3+ edema
• D. 4+ edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.

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