NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:
- A. high infant mortality rate
- B. frequent use of Emergency Departments
- C. consultation with folk healers
- D. low incidence of dental problems
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Factors correlated with poverty often include a high infant mortality rate, frequent use of Emergency Departments, and consultation with folk healers, as these indicate limited access to healthcare. Dental problems are prevalent in poverty due to a lack of preventive care and access to treatments. High infant mortality is a significant issue linked with poverty as it reflects poor healthcare access. Families in poverty might resort to Emergency Departments for healthcare due to financial barriers. Consulting folk healers is common in communities with limited access to formal healthcare. However, a low incidence of dental problems is less likely in impoverished families due to the lack of preventive services and the presence of other health issues.
2. A wrong committed by one person against another (or against the property of another) that might result in a civil trial is:
- A. a tort
- B. a crime
- C. a misdemeanor
- D. a felony
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A tort is a civil wrong committed by one person against another person (or against the property of another) that might result in civil trials. Unlike crimes, which are considered wrongs against the public, torts are personal wrongs. Misdemeanors are crimes punishable with fines or imprisonment for less than one year, whereas felonies are serious crimes punishable by imprisonment for more than one year in a State or Federal penitentiary. Therefore, the correct answer is a tort as it aligns with the definition of a civil wrong that leads to potential civil trials, distinguishing it from crimes, misdemeanors, and felonies.
3. A client with dumping syndrome should..........................while a client with GERD should..........................
- A. Sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
- B. Lie down 1 hour after eating; sit up at least 30 minutes after eating
- C. Sit up after meals; sit up after meals
- D. Lie down after meals; lie down after meals
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a client with dumping syndrome, lying down 1 hour after eating helps reduce symptoms by slowing down the movement of food through the digestive tract, aiding in symptom management. This position assists in symptom management for dumping syndrome. Conversely, for a client with GERD, sitting up at least 30 minutes after eating can help prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, reducing reflux symptoms. This upright position is beneficial for managing GERD. Choice A is incorrect because sitting up is recommended for GERD, not dumping syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests sitting up for both conditions, which is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as lying down after meals is not recommended for GERD; it can worsen symptoms by promoting acid reflux.
4. A woman in labor whose cervix is not completely dilated is pushing strenuously during contractions. Which method of breathing should the nurse encourage the woman to perform to help her overcome the urge to push?
- A. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver
- B. Blowing repeatedly in short puffs
- C. Cleansing breaths
- D. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end, respectively, of each contraction
Correct answer: B
Rationale: If a woman pushes strenuously before the cervix is completely dilated, she risks injury to the cervix and the fetal head. Blowing prevents closure of the glottis and breath-holding, helping overcome the urge to push strenuously. The woman would be encouraged to blow repeatedly, using short puffs, when the urge to push is strong. This breathing technique allows for controlled exhalation and helps prevent unnecessary pushing. Cleansing breaths (deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction) are encouraged during the first stage of labor to provide oxygenation and reduce myometrial hypoxia and to promote relaxation. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver (choice A) is not recommended as it can increase intra-abdominal pressure and decrease venous return, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction (choice D) are more suitable for relaxation and oxygenation purposes rather than managing the urge to push.
5. A nurse palpates a client’s radial pulse, noting the rate, rhythm, and force, and concludes that the client’s pulse is normal. Which notation would the nurse make in the client’s record to document the force of the client’s pulse?
- A. 4+
- B. 3+
- C. 2+
- D. 1+
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When assessing a pulse, the nurse should note the rhythm, amplitude, and symmetry of pulses and should compare peripheral pulses on the two sides for rate, rhythm, and quality. A 4-point scale may be used to assess the force (amplitude) of the pulse: 4+ for a bounding pulse, 3+ for an increased pulse, 2+ for a normal pulse, and 1+ for a weak pulse. In this case, the nurse would grade the client’s pulse as 2+ based on the description of a normal pulse. Therefore, the correct notation for the force of the client’s pulse is '2+' as it indicates a normal pulse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent different levels of pulse force that do not align with the description given in the scenario.
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