NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. A nurse assisting with data collection plans to assess tactile (vocal) fremitus. The nurse performs this by using which technique?
- A. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion
- B. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx
- C. Auscultating the breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields
- D. Palpating the thorax, comparing vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine'
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To assess tactile (vocal) fremitus, the nurse palpates the thorax and compares vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine.' This technique helps in evaluating the intensity and symmetry of vibrations felt. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion involves assessing the expansion of the chest during breathing by placing hands on the anterolateral wall. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx is done to assess bronchial breath sounds, while auscultating over the peripheral lung fields is used to assess vesicular breath sounds.
2. A client is scheduled to undergo a Papanicolaou (Pap) test in 1 week. Which statement does the nurse make to the client?
- A. 'If you are menstruating, use pads instead of a tampon.'
- B. 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.'
- C. 'Get a douching kit from the pharmacy and douche 2 hours before the examination.'
- D. 'If you are having a vaginal discharge, obtain a sample of the discharge for inspection.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.' The Pap test is used to screen for cervical cancer. It is not performed during menstruation or if a heavy infectious discharge is present. Before the test, the client should not douche, have intercourse, or insert anything into the vagina within 24 hours. Instructing the client to use pads instead of a tampon when menstruating can interfere with the test results due to the presence of blood. Douching before the exam is discouraged as it can alter the cervical cells' appearance, affecting the test's accuracy. Obtaining a sample of vaginal discharge for inspection is not a standard pre-Pap test instruction and is unnecessary for the test.
3. An adult client tells the clinic nurse that he is susceptible to middle ear infections. About which risk factor related to infection of the ears does the nurse question this client?
- A. Loud music
- B. Use of power tools
- C. Occupational noise
- D. Exposure to cigarette smoke
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exposure to cigarette smoke.' Otitis media (middle ear infection) is associated with various factors like colds, allergies, sore throats, and blockage of the eustachian tubes. Risk factors include exposure to cigarette smoke, youth (as otitis media is usually a childhood disease), congenital abnormalities, immune deficiencies, family history of otitis media, recent upper respiratory infections, and allergies. Choices A, B, and C (Loud music, Use of power tools, and Occupational noise) are more likely to cause hearing loss rather than being direct risk factors for middle ear infections.
4. Which of the following values should be monitored closely while a client is on total parenteral nutrition?
- A. calcium
- B. magnesium
- C. glucose
- D. cholesterol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Glucose is the correct value to monitor closely while a client is on total parenteral nutrition. Total parenteral nutrition solutions have high glucose concentrations, necessitating monitoring to prevent complications like hyperglycemia. Calcium, magnesium, and cholesterol are not typically closely monitored during total parenteral nutrition as they are not directly related to the solution's composition or potential associated complications.
5. Which of the following vaccines contains a live virus?
- A. varicella
- B. IPV
- C. DTaP
- D. hepatitis B
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is varicella. Varicella vaccine contains a live, weakened form of the varicella-zoster virus. Choice B, IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine), is an inactivated vaccine, not a live virus vaccine. Choices C and D, DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis vaccine) and hepatitis B vaccine, respectively, do not contain live viruses. Varicella is the only live virus vaccine among the options.
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