Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assisting with data collection plans to assess tactile (vocal) fremitus. The nurse performs this by using which technique?

• A. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion
• B. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx
• C. Auscultating the breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields
• D. Palpating the thorax, comparing vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To assess tactile (vocal) fremitus, the nurse palpates the thorax and compares vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine.' This technique helps in evaluating the intensity and symmetry of vibrations felt. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion involves assessing the expansion of the chest during breathing by placing hands on the anterolateral wall. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx is done to assess bronchial breath sounds, while auscultating over the peripheral lung fields is used to assess vesicular breath sounds.

2. A client describes her cervical mucus as clear, thin, and elastic. Upon examination, the nurse demonstrates that the cervical mucus can be stretched 8-10 cm. The nurse correctly documents the finding as:

• A. increased ferning capacity.
• B. lack of ferning.
• C. spinnbarkheit.
• D. inhospitable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should document the finding as 'spinnbarkheit.' Spinnbarkheit is the term used to describe the clear, thin, and elastic cervical mucus that can be stretched 8-10 cm, indicating ovulation. It helps couples determine the most fertile period for conception. Ferning capacity or crystallization increases as ovulation approaches, but it requires microscopic examination to be confirmed. Lack of ferning cannot be determined without such examination. 'Inhospitable' cervical mucus refers to patterns that prohibit sperm motility, caused by various factors like hormone levels or infection. These conditions cannot be assessed based solely on the description provided in the question.

3. A pregnant client is scheduled to undergo a transabdominal ultrasound, and the nurse provides information to the client about the procedure. The nurse provides which information?

• A. The procedure typically takes 10 to 30 minutes.
• B. She may need to drink fluids before the test and may not void until the test has been completed.
• C. A probe coated with gel will be inserted into the vagina.
• D. She will be positioned on her back, with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client may need to drink fluids before the test and may not void until the test has been completed. For a transabdominal ultrasound, the woman is positioned on her back with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side to prevent supine hypotension. A wedge or rolled blanket is placed under one hip to help her maintain this position comfortably. If a full bladder is necessary, the woman is instructed to drink several glasses of clear fluid 1 hour before the test and told that she should not void until the test has been completed. Warm mineral oil or transmission gel is spread over her abdomen, and the sonographer slowly moves a transducer over the abdomen to obtain a picture. The procedure typically takes 10 to 30 minutes, making choice A incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because a probe is not inserted into the vagina for a transabdominal ultrasound. Choice D is incorrect because the woman is positioned on her back with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side, not specifically on her back.

4. A nurse is assisting with data collection regarding the motor development of a 24-month-old child. Which activities would the nurse expect the mother to report that the child can perform?

• A. Go to the bathroom without help
• B. Dress himself appropriately
• C. Put on and tie his shoes
• D. Align two or more blocks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: By 24 months of age, a child can perform various activities. While the child may be able to put on simple items of clothing, distinguishing front from back might still be a challenge. They may also be able to zip large zippers, put on shoes, wash and dry their hands, align two or more blocks, and turn book pages one at a time. However, the fine motor skill required to tie shoes is usually not developed at this age. Full independence in dressing, using the bathroom, and eating typically occurs around 4 to 5 years of age. Therefore, the correct expectation for a 24-month-old child would be aligning two or more blocks. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they represent skills that are usually achieved at a later age.

5. Which of the following would likely not impede learning?

• A. a client who took Ambien� an hour ago
• B. a bipolar client currently in a manic phase
• C. a client who states they are not interested
• D. a client with dysphagia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client who states they are not interested. While lack of interest can hinder learning motivation, it is not a physical or mental barrier that directly impacts the learning process. On the other hand, a client who took Ambien� an hour ago may experience drowsiness or impaired cognitive function, affecting their ability to learn. A bipolar client in a manic phase may exhibit symptoms such as racing thoughts, distractibility, and impulsivity, making it challenging for them to focus and engage in the learning process. A client with dysphagia may have difficulty swallowing, which can interfere with their ability to take oral medications or participate in activities that involve swallowing.

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