Nursing Elites

1. When an elder client asks the nurse whether he will be capable of sexual activity in old age, the best response by the nurse is:

• A. "Elder adults are psychologically and physically capable of engaging in sexual activity regardless of age-related changes."?
• B. "If you haven't been sexually active throughout your life, you will not be able to participate in sexual activity in old age."?
• C. "When intercourse isn't possible, many of your sexual needs can be met through intimacy and touch."?
• D. "You might find it takes longer for you to achieve an erection, but you can maintain it for a longer time."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the nurse when an elder client asks about capability for sexual activity in old age is to provide reassurance and open communication. Choice A is the correct answer as it acknowledges that elder adults can engage in sexual activity both physically and psychologically despite age-related changes. This response encourages further discussion and addresses the client's concerns. Choices B, C, and D contain some truths but are not the most therapeutic responses. Choice B implies that past sexual activity is a prerequisite for sexual activity in old age, which is not entirely accurate as intimacy can be experienced in various ways. Choice C, while true about alternative ways to meet sexual needs, does not directly address the client's question about sexual activity. Choice D focuses on the physiological aspect of sexual function, which is important but not the most appropriate initial response to the client's query.

2. The client has been on vancomycin for three days. Which of the following symptoms is least concerning?

• A. nausea
• B. headache
• C. vertigo
• D. tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'headache.' While vancomycin can cause ototoxicity leading to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea, headaches are not typically associated with vancomycin use. Therefore, headache is the least concerning symptom in this scenario. Nausea, vertigo, and tinnitus are more likely to be related to vancomycin ototoxicity and should be closely monitored and reported. Headache is a common symptom that may not be directly linked to vancomycin use.

3. A nurse auscultating the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a pregnant client in the first trimester of pregnancy notes that the FHR is 160 beats/min. With this information, what should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding.
• B. Document the findings.
• C. Tell the client that the FHR is faster than normal but that it is nothing to be concerned about at this time.
• D. Wait 15 minutes and then recheck the FHR.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An FHR of 160 beats/min in the first trimester of pregnancy is within the normal range, which is generally 120 to 160 beats/min. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to document the findings. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider as this is a normal finding. Informing the client that the FHR is faster than normal may cause unnecessary anxiety, as it falls within the expected range. Waiting to recheck the FHR is not necessary since the rate is already within the normal range.

4. Intramuscular (IM) phytonadione (vitamin K) 0.5 mg is prescribed for a newborn. After the medication is prepared, in which anatomic site does the nurse administer it?

• A. Rectus femoris muscle
• B. Deltoid muscle
• C. Gluteal muscle
• D. Vastus lateralis muscle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin K is administered to newborn infants to help prevent hemorrhagic disease. The best site for intramuscular injection in infants is the vastus lateralis muscle. This site is preferred due to its location away from the sciatic nerve, femoral artery, and vein, reducing the risk of complications. The rectus femoris muscle may be used if necessary; however, it is less favorable than the vastus lateralis due to its proximity to vital structures, making injections there more hazardous. The deltoid muscle is not typically used for IM injections in newborns. The gluteal muscles should be avoided until the child has been walking for at least a year, as they are poorly developed and close to the sciatic nerve.

5. The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?

• A. Tylenol
• B. Tramadol
• C. Codeine
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.

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