Nursing Elites

1. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

2. The client is being assessed for possible pernicious anemia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?

• A. A weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks
• B. Complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities
• C. A red, beefy tongue
• D. A hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a red, beefy tongue, which is characteristic of pernicious anemia due to the atrophy of the papillae on the tongue. This finding is known as glossitis. A red, beefy tongue is a classic sign of pernicious anemia. Choice A, weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks, is non-specific and not a typical finding in pernicious anemia. Choice B, complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities, are more indicative of peripheral neuropathy, a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be seen in pernicious anemia. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL, falls within the normal range and does not specifically point towards pernicious anemia, which is characterized by low hemoglobin levels due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.

3. The client with cirrhosis of the liver is receiving Lactulose. The nurse is aware that the rationale for the order for Lactulose is:

• A. To lower the blood glucose level
• B. To lower the uric acid level
• C. To lower the ammonia level
• D. To lower the creatinine level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lactulose is administered to the client with cirrhosis to lower ammonia levels, as it works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for elimination in the stool. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Lactulose does not have an effect on blood glucose, uric acid, or creatinine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower the ammonia level.

4. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. a client with renal impairment
• B. a client with hypertension
• C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
• D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.

5. The women's health charge nurse is making assignments for the next shift. The unit is short one staff member and will receive a nurse from the medical-surgical unit. Which group of clients should she assign to the medical-surgical nurse?

• A. Total abdominal hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, client with breast reduction
• B. C-section planning discharge, post-partum infection, mastectomy
• C. Vaginal delivery of fetal demise, C-section with pneumonia, 32-week gestation with lymphoma
• D. 28-week gestation of bed rest, post-partum with HELLP syndrome, breast reconstruction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer includes clients who have undergone surgical procedures typically managed on a medical-surgical unit. Choice A consists of clients who have had elective surgical procedures such as hysterectomy, bladder suspension with A&P repair, and breast reduction, which are commonly treated in a medical-surgical setting. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with various complications related to childbirth, fetal demise, pneumonia, gestational lymphoma, HELLP syndrome, and bed rest, which are more complex cases requiring specialized care beyond medical-surgical nursing.

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