Nursing Elites

1. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

2. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

3. James returns home from school angry and upset because his teacher gave him a low grade on an assignment. After returning home from school, he kicks the dog. This coping mechanism is known as:

• A. denial
• B. suppression
• C. displacement
• D. fantasy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'displacement.' Displacement is a defense mechanism where emotions or impulses are transferred from their original source to a substitute target. In this scenario, James is displacing his anger from his teacher onto the dog. Choice A, 'denial,' involves refusing to acknowledge an unpleasant reality. Choice B, 'suppression,' is the conscious effort to push unwanted thoughts out of awareness. Choice D, 'fantasy,' refers to imagining scenarios that fulfill one's desires but are not based in reality.

4. A client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia has been released from an acute care setting. The client had a prolonged recovery from relapse. One of the parents says to the discharge nurse, 'I do not understand what is going on. The hospital said she was better, but all she does is sit around all day and smoke. We cannot get her to go to the vocational training you arranged.' The nurse recognizes that more teaching is needed about

• A. the pathophysiology and behavioral manifestations of schizophrenia.
• B. support groups that can help the parents cope with their frustration.
• C. the prolonged recovery time and side effects of medications to prevent relapse.
• D. motivational techniques that are effective in engaging clients with schizophrenia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse conducting discharge teaching must emphasize the extended recovery process and the potential side effects of medications used to prevent relapse in individuals with schizophrenia. In this scenario, it is crucial for the parents to understand that the client's behavior may be influenced by the medication's sedative qualities and the time required for full recovery. While support groups can assist caregivers in coping with their emotions and providing better care, the priority here is educating on the recovery process and medication effects. Motivational techniques are beneficial but may not be the immediate focus in this situation.

5. While assessing a client who is dying for signs of impending death, what should the nurse observe for?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
• C. Elevated pulse rate
• D. Decreased temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client for signs of impending death, the nurse should observe for Cheyne-Stokes respiration. This pattern involves rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep breathing to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. It is often associated with cardiac failure and can be a significant indicator of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typical signs of impending death; in fact, they may indicate other conditions. A decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death, as temperature changes can vary among individuals and may not always correlate with the dying process.

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