Nursing Elites

1. The LPN has been asked to help a client taking Risperdal with activities of daily living in the morning. Which of these tasks is most likely to be potentially impacted by this medication?

• A. eating breakfast
• B. drinking fluids
• C. getting out of bed to use the bathroom
• D. brushing teeth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'getting out of bed to use the bathroom.' Risperdal can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a drop in blood pressure when changing positions from lying down to standing up. This effect increases the risk of falls, emphasizing the need to assist the client with this task to prevent potential harm. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be directly impacted by the medication, unlike the significant risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with changing positions.

2. The nurse is assessing an 18-month-old. Which of these statements made by the parent or caregiver would require follow-up?

• A. I'm worried that my child is not using two-word phrases yet.
• B. My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.
• C. My child seems to have developed separation anxiety when I leave.
• D. I'm letting my child use a spoon to eat.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.' By 18 months of age, children should have taken their first steps and stand well. If a child hasn't made progress by this age, a physical therapy evaluation may be necessary. It is normal for an 18-month-old to start using a spoon to eat. However, the use of two-word phrases is not typically expected until 2 years of age. Separation anxiety is a common developmental phase that typically occurs between 6 and 18 months, so it does not require immediate follow-up. Therefore, the statement about the child not being stable when standing raises a red flag and necessitates further evaluation.

3. A nurse is preparing to assess the function of a client's spinal accessory nerve. Which action does the nurse ask the client to take to aid assessment of this nerve?

• A. Smiling
• B. Clenching the teeth
• C. Shrugging the shoulders against the nurse's resistance
• D. Identifying by taste a substance placed on the back of the tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the examiner checks the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size. Equal strength is assessed by asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance applied to the side of the chin and by asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. These movements should feel equally strong on the two sides. The client is asked to smile as a test of the function of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The client's ability to clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). The client's taste perception is used to assess the sensory function of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). Therefore, the correct action to assess the spinal accessory nerve is to ask the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. The other options are used to assess different cranial nerves, making them incorrect choices.

4. During an interview, what action should a nurse conducting an interview with a client take to collect subjective data?

• A. Takes minimal notes to avoid impeding observation of the client's nonverbal behaviors
• B. Takes a great deal of notes to allow the client to continue at his or her own pace as the nurse records what he or she is saying
• C. Takes notes because this allows the nurse to break eye contact with the client, which may increase the client's level of comfort
• D. Takes notes to allow the nurse to shift attention away from the client, which may make the nurse more comfortable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an interview, a nurse should minimize note-taking to focus on the client and not impede the conversation. Taking minimal notes allows the nurse to effectively observe the client's nonverbal behaviors, which provide valuable subjective data. Option B, taking many notes, is incorrect as it can distract the nurse from the client's cues and hinder interaction. Option C, taking notes to break eye contact, is incorrect as it may decrease the client's comfort level and disrupt communication. Option D, taking notes to shift attention away from the client, is incorrect as it diminishes the client's importance and may make them uncomfortable during sensitive discussions. Therefore, the correct approach is for the nurse to take minimal notes, ensuring effective observation of the client's nonverbal behaviors while collecting subjective data.

5. Intramuscular (IM) phytonadione (vitamin K) 0.5 mg is prescribed for a newborn. After the medication is prepared, in which anatomic site does the nurse administer it?

• A. Rectus femoris muscle
• B. Deltoid muscle
• C. Gluteal muscle
• D. Vastus lateralis muscle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin K is administered to newborn infants to help prevent hemorrhagic disease. The best site for intramuscular injection in infants is the vastus lateralis muscle. This site is preferred due to its location away from the sciatic nerve, femoral artery, and vein, reducing the risk of complications. The rectus femoris muscle may be used if necessary; however, it is less favorable than the vastus lateralis due to its proximity to vital structures, making injections there more hazardous. The deltoid muscle is not typically used for IM injections in newborns. The gluteal muscles should be avoided until the child has been walking for at least a year, as they are poorly developed and close to the sciatic nerve.

Similar Questions