Nursing Elites

1. The LPN has been asked to help a client taking Risperdal with activities of daily living in the morning. Which of these tasks is most likely to be potentially impacted by this medication?

• A. eating breakfast
• B. drinking fluids
• C. getting out of bed to use the bathroom
• D. brushing teeth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'getting out of bed to use the bathroom.' Risperdal can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a drop in blood pressure when changing positions from lying down to standing up. This effect increases the risk of falls, emphasizing the need to assist the client with this task to prevent potential harm. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be directly impacted by the medication, unlike the significant risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with changing positions.

2. After undergoing gastric resection, which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?

• A. a high-protein meal
• B. a high-fat meal
• C. a large meal regardless of nutrient content
• D. a high-carbohydrate meal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. In contrast, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. While a large meal can slow down gastric emptying, the specific nutrient content, such as high carbohydrates, plays a significant role in promoting rapid emptying. Therefore, a high-carbohydrate meal is the correct choice as it is most likely to lead to rapid gastric emptying compared to the other options.

3. A nurse is participating in a planning conference to improve dietary measures for an older client experiencing dysphagia. Which action should the nurse suggest including in the plan of care?

• A. Monitoring the client during meals to ensure that food is swallowed
• B. Encouraging the client to feed themselves
• C. Consulting with the physician regarding feeding through an enteral tube
• D. Ensuring that the diet consists of both solids and liquids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For clients with dysphagia, ensuring successful swallowing of food and preventing aspiration is crucial. Therefore, the nurse should suggest monitoring the client closely during meals to provide assistance as needed. While a balanced diet is important, special considerations like adding thickeners for liquids may be required for dysphagia clients. Consulting with a physician about enteral tube feeding should be based on the severity of the condition, making it a premature step without clear indications. Encouraging self-feeding may not be appropriate for dysphagia clients who require close monitoring and assistance, as it could increase the risk of complications.

4. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

5. A nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant. Which piece of equipment does the nurse use to assess the FHR?

• A. Stethoscope
• B. Doppler transducer
• C. Fetoscope
• D. Pulse oximetry on the client and a fetoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess the fetal heart rate of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant, the nurse should use a Doppler transducer. Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation, making it the most appropriate choice for this scenario. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds, so it is an incorrect choice in this context.

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