Nursing Elites

1. All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:

• A. hot flashes
• B. loss of reproductive ability
• C. headaches
• D. heart palpitations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.

2. When examining the abdomen, a nurse auscultates before palpating and percussing the abdomen. The nurse performs the assessment in this manner for which reason?

• A. It is less painful for the client.
• B. Palpation and percussion can increase peristalsis.
• C. It identifies any potential areas of abdominal tenderness.
• D. It gives the client more time to become comfortable with the examiner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When performing an abdominal assessment, the nurse auscultates the abdomen after inspection. Auscultation is done before palpation and percussion because these assessment techniques can increase peristalsis, which would yield a false interpretation of bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent false interpretations of bowel sounds due to increased peristalsis caused by palpation and percussion. Options A, C, and D provide incorrect reasons for auscultating the abdomen before palpating and percussing it.

3. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old client. What is the most appropriate pain scale for the nurse to use during the assessment?

• A. McGill Pain Scale
• B. FLACC Pain Scale
• C. CRIES Pain Scale
• D. Wong-Baker Pain Scale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the Wong-Baker Pain Scale. This scale is specifically designed for pediatric clients, including children as young as 3 years old, making it the most appropriate choice for a 4-year-old. It utilizes a simple visual scale with facial expressions that children can easily understand and use to express their pain levels. The FLACC and CRIES Pain Scales are also used for pediatric clients but are more focused on non-verbal cues and specific populations like infants or critically ill children. The McGill Pain Scale, on the other hand, is more complex and uses descriptive words, making it more suitable for adult clients who can better articulate their pain experiences.

4. When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:

• A. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse."?
• B. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse."?
• C. "The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5.3 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you."?
• D. "We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is to offer immediate guidance while also indicating when fertility counseling should be sought. While Choice A is technically correct as guidelines recommend seeking fertility counseling after 1 year of unprotected intercourse, it lacks providing immediate guidance. Choice B suggests seeking counseling after 6-9 months, which is earlier than the standard recommendation of 1 year. Choice C mentions the average time to conceive for someone of the client's age without addressing the client's current concern. Therefore, Choice D is the most appropriate response as it offers immediate guidance along with a plan for referral if needed.

5. A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:

• A. sprain.
• B. strain.
• C. subluxation.
• D. dislocation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The term 'strain' is the correct choice. A strain refers to the excessive stretching of a muscle or tendon, which aligns with a pulled ligament diagnosis. A sprain, on the other hand, involves ligament injury due to twisting motions. 'Subluxation' indicates a partial dislocation of a joint, not a pulled ligament. 'Dislocation' refers to the complete displacement of bones in a joint, which is not the appropriate term for a pulled ligament.

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