if ms barretts distance vision is 2030 which of the following statements is true
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. If Ms. Barrett's distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When Ms. Barrett's distance vision is measured as 20/30, it means that she can read from 20 feet away what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet. The numerator (20) represents the distance in feet between the chart and the client, while the denominator (30) indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. In this case, Ms. Barrett's vision is slightly worse than normal, as she needs to be closer to the chart to read it clearly. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Choice B reverses the distances, Choice C assumes the client can read the entire chart from 30 feet, and Choice D introduces information not related to the 20/30 measurement.

2. During a throat assessment, a healthcare provider asks a client to stick out their tongue and notices it protrudes in the midline. Which cranial nerve is being tested?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). When testing cranial nerve XII, the healthcare provider inspects the symmetry and movement of the tongue. The tongue should protrude in the midline when the client sticks it out. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve) are tested by depressing the tongue with a blade to observe pharyngeal movement and gag reflex. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) is responsible for testing the muscles of mastication, not tongue protrusion.

3. The LPN has been asked to help a client taking Risperdal with activities of daily living in the morning. Which of these tasks is most likely to be potentially impacted by this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'getting out of bed to use the bathroom.' Risperdal can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a drop in blood pressure when changing positions from lying down to standing up. This effect increases the risk of falls, emphasizing the need to assist the client with this task to prevent potential harm. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be directly impacted by the medication, unlike the significant risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with changing positions.

4. A nurse is preparing to auscultate a fetal heart rate (FHR). The nurse performs the Leopold maneuvers to determine the position of the fetus and then places the fetoscope over which part of the fetus?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse would use the Leopold maneuvers to identify the position of the fetus and determine the location of the fetal back. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is most easily heard through the fetal back because it usually lies closest to the surface of the maternal abdomen. Auscultation of the FHR over the chest, carotid artery, or brachial area is not possible due to the fetal position within the maternal abdomen. Placing the fetoscope over the carotid artery or brachial area would not yield the fetal heart rate, and the chest area is not typically used for auscultating the FHR.

5. When performing an abdominal assessment, what is the correct order of the tasks?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct order of tasks when performing an abdominal assessment is to first inspect the abdomen visually, then auscultate to assess bowel sounds without altering them, followed by percussing to assess the presence of tympany or dullness, and finally palpating to feel for any tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Placing palpation or percussion before auscultation, as in choices A, B, and D, can affect the bowel sounds and examination findings, making them incorrect sequences.

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