Nursing Elites

1. If Ms. Barrett's distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?

• A. The client can read from 20' what a person with normal vision can read at 30'.
• B. The client can read from 30' what a person with normal vision can read at 20'.
• C. The client can read the entire chart from 30'.
• D. The client can read the chart from 20' with the left eye and from 30' with the right eye.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When Ms. Barrett's distance vision is measured as 20/30, it means that she can read from 20 feet away what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet. The numerator (20) represents the distance in feet between the chart and the client, while the denominator (30) indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. In this case, Ms. Barrett's vision is slightly worse than normal, as she needs to be closer to the chart to read it clearly. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Choice B reverses the distances, Choice C assumes the client can read the entire chart from 30 feet, and Choice D introduces information not related to the 20/30 measurement.

2. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?

• A. Near vision
• B. Color vision
• C. Distant vision
• D. Peripheral vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.

3. Health promotion activities are designed to help clients:

• A. reduce the risk of illness
• B. maintain maximal function
• C. promote healthy habits related to healthcare
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Health promotion activities encompass a broad range of interventions aimed at enhancing overall well-being. These activities not only focus on reducing the risk of illness but also on maintaining maximal function and promoting healthy habits related to healthcare. Therefore, the correct answer is 'all of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are all integral components of health promotion strategies, emphasizing the multidimensional approach required to support clients in achieving optimal health outcomes.

4. A pregnant client is being educated by a nurse on nutrition and foods rich in folic acid. Which food item does the nurse inform the client contains the highest amount of folic acid?

• A. Pinto beans
• B. Lettuce
• C. Oranges
• D. Broccoli

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pinto beans contain the highest amount of folic acid among the options provided, with 294 mcg per 1-cup serving. Oranges contain 44 mcg per 1-cup serving, lettuce contains 60 mcg per 1-cup serving, and broccoli contains 78 mcg per 1-cup serving. Therefore, pinto beans are the best choice for increasing folic acid intake during pregnancy. Choosing oranges, lettuce, or broccoli would not provide as much folic acid compared to pinto beans, making them less optimal choices for meeting folic acid requirements during pregnancy.

5. A nurse is caring for an older client who has a bronchopulmonary infection. The nurse monitors the client's ability to maintain a patent airway because of which factor involved in the normal aging process?

• A. Increased respiratory system compliance
• B. Decreased number of alveoli and increased function of those remaining
• C. Decreased older client's ability to clear secretions
• D. Increased production of surfactant

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased older client's ability to clear secretions.' Respiratory changes related to the normal aging process decrease an older adult's ability to clear secretions and protect the airway. In healthy older adults, the number of alveoli does not change significantly; their structure, however, is altered. Respiratory system compliance decreases with advancing age because of a progressive loss of elastic recoil of the lung parenchyma and conducting airways, and reduced elastic recoil of the lung and opposing forces of the chest wall. Production of surfactant in the lung does not usually decrease with aging, nor does it increase. However, the production of alveolar cells responsible for surfactant production is diminished. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because respiratory system compliance decreases with aging. Choice B is incorrect as the number of alveoli does not significantly decrease in healthy older adults. Choice D is incorrect as the production of surfactant does not usually decrease with aging.

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