NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care
1. The nurse provides a postoperative client with an analgesic medication and darkens the room before the client goes to sleep for the night. The nurse's actions:
- A. help decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex.
- B. stimulate hormonal changes in the brain.
- C. help the client's circadian rhythm.
- D. alert the hypothalamus in the brain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's actions of providing an analgesic medication and darkening the room aim to decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex. Reduction of environmental stimuli, especially light and noise, from the cerebral cortex, which is an area of arousal, facilitates sleep. By decreasing input to this area, the client is more likely to fall asleep and stay asleep. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the scenario does not involve stimulating hormonal changes, influencing the circadian rhythm, or alerting the hypothalamus.
2. An Asian family has an elderly member with the latest stage of Alzheimer's disease. The physician has recommended placement in a long-term care facility, but the family refuses. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. "You really need to listen to what the physician says."?
- B. "You will get too tired to take care of him at home."?
- C. "What can I do to assist you to care for him at home?"?
- D. "You are too busy to be taking care of an elderly person."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, "What can I do to assist you to care for him at home?"? This response shows cultural sensitivity and respect for the family's values. In many Asian cultures, there is a strong tradition of caring for elders at home rather than in a long-term care facility. By offering assistance to the family in caring for their elderly member at home, the nurse shows understanding and support. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not acknowledge or respect the family's cultural beliefs and values regarding caring for elderly family members.
3. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?
- A. LDH
- B. troponin
- C. CPK
- D. SGOT
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.
4. A client with a spinal cord injury is preparing to return home from the rehabilitation unit. Which of the following statements by a family member indicates a need for further teaching regarding autonomic dysreflexia?
- A. "I should raise him to a sitting position."?
- B. "I should check for a fecal impaction."?
- C. "I should look for a kink in the urinary catheter tubing."?
- D. "I should observe whether symptoms worsen."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: If the client develops signs or symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia, they need to be addressed immediately. If the family member is not able to relieve them, a healthcare provider needs to be notified immediately. The statement 'I should observe whether symptoms worsen' indicates a passive approach and does not address the urgency of the situation. Choices A, B, and C are correct as they involve active measures to address autonomic dysreflexia, such as raising the client to a sitting position, checking for a fecal impaction, and looking for a kink in the urinary catheter tubing.
5. A nurse is watching as a new nurse employee administers an intramuscular (IM) injection in a client's deltoid muscle. The nurse determines that the new employee is performing the procedure correctly if the new employee uses which technique?
- A. Administers the injection 2 inches below the acromion process
- B. Positions the client with the deltoid muscle exposed
- C. Administers the injection in the thigh
- D. Places the client in the Sims position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering an intramuscular injection in the deltoid muscle, the correct technique involves administering the injection 2 inches below the acromion process, which is the bony structure on top of the shoulder blade. This location ensures safe and effective administration. Administering the injection in the thigh (vastus lateralis or rectus femoris muscle) is not appropriate for a deltoid injection as the deltoid muscle is located in the upper arm. The Sims position is not the correct position for a deltoid muscle injection. While positioning the client with the deltoid muscle exposed allows for proper access and visualization, the critical aspect for a correct deltoid injection is the accurate injection site, 2 inches below the acromion process.
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