Nursing Elites

1. All of the following interventions should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:

• A. Increase maternal fluids.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Decrease maternal fluids.
• D. Turn the mother.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress, interventions are aimed at improving oxygenation to the fetus. Increasing maternal fluids helps improve placental perfusion and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Administering oxygen also aids in increasing oxygen supply to the fetus. Turning the mother can help relieve pressure on the vena cava, optimizing blood flow to the placenta. Therefore, decreasing maternal fluids would not be performed as it can further compromise placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation, making it the exception. Decreasing maternal fluids could potentially exacerbate fetal distress by reducing oxygen delivery and nutrient supply to the fetus, which is contrary to the goal of managing fetal distress.

2. When observing a dressing change by a graduate nurse on a Stage III pressure ulcer to the greater trochanter by the staff nurse, a need for further teaching is indicated after the following observation by the nurse:

• A. The new graduate nurse irrigates the pressure ulcer with 50cc of NS.
• B. The new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide.
• C. The new graduate packs the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in NS.
• D. The new graduate applies a Duoderm dressing over the wound after cleansing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide. Pressure ulcers should not be cleaned with substances that are cytotoxic, such as hydrogen peroxide or betadine. This can cause further damage to the wound and delay the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because irrigating the pressure ulcer with normal saline is an appropriate practice. Choice C is incorrect because packing the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in normal saline is also an appropriate step. Choice D is incorrect because applying a Duoderm dressing after cleansing is a standard procedure in wound care.

3. An LPN is working on the care plan for a client with diabetes mellitus. Which of these outcomes would be the most appropriate?

• A. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within the normal range of 70-110 (per facility policy) throughout my shift.
• B. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within normal range limits today.
• C. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within the normal range of 70-110 (per facility policy) throughout my shift.
• D. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within normal limits throughout my shift.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client will maintain a blood glucose level within the normal range of 70-110 (per facility policy) throughout my shift.' This outcome is specific, measurable, and aligns with the goal of managing diabetes mellitus. Choice A is correct because it provides a clear target range (70-110) and includes adherence to facility policy, making it precise and goal-oriented. Choice B lacks specificity on the timeframe, and Choice D is vague in defining the target blood glucose range. In nursing care plans, outcomes should be well-defined, achievable, and measurable to effectively monitor the client's progress in managing their condition.

4. While assisting a healthcare provider in assessing a hospitalized client, the healthcare provider is paged to report to the recovery room. The healthcare provider instructs the nurse verbally to change the solution and rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid being administered. What is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation?

• A. Calling the nursing supervisor to obtain permission to accept the verbal prescription
• B. Asking the healthcare provider to write the prescription in the client's record before leaving the nursing unit
• C. Telling the healthcare provider that the prescription will not be implemented until it is documented in the client's record
• D. Changing the solution and rate of the IV fluid per the healthcare provider's verbal prescription

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verbal prescriptions should be avoided due to the risk of errors. If a verbal prescription is necessary, it should be promptly written and signed by the healthcare provider, typically within 24 hours. Following agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions is crucial. In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to request the healthcare provider to document the prescription in the client's record before leaving the unit. Calling the nursing supervisor to accept the verbal prescription without documentation, telling the healthcare provider to delay treatment until documented, and directly changing the IV fluid based on verbal orders all pose risks and do not align with best practices in medication administration.

5. Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone?

• A. moving calcium from bones to the bloodstream
• B. inhibiting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus
• C. promoting renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
• D. enhancing renal production of vitamin D metabolites

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'inhibiting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus.' Parathyroid hormone actually inhibits renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus, making this choice the opposite of its function. Parathyroid hormone functions to move calcium from bones to the bloodstream (Choice A), promote renal tubular reabsorption of calcium (Choice C), and enhance renal production of vitamin D metabolites (Choice D). Therefore, all other choices are functions of parathyroid hormone except for the inhibition of phosphorus reabsorption.

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