Nursing Elites

1. A client is having a seizure; his blood oxygen saturation drops from 92% to 82%. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Open the airway.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Suction the client.
• D. Check for breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is having a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops significantly, the priority action for the nurse is to open the airway. This allows for adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Administering oxygen can come after ensuring the airway is clear. Suctioning the client should be done if there is an airway obstruction, and checking for breathing is part of the assessment but opening the airway takes precedence to ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation during a critical event like a seizure.

2. While assisting a healthcare provider in assessing a hospitalized client, the healthcare provider is paged to report to the recovery room. The healthcare provider instructs the nurse verbally to change the solution and rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid being administered. What is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation?

• A. Calling the nursing supervisor to obtain permission to accept the verbal prescription
• B. Asking the healthcare provider to write the prescription in the client's record before leaving the nursing unit
• C. Telling the healthcare provider that the prescription will not be implemented until it is documented in the client's record
• D. Changing the solution and rate of the IV fluid per the healthcare provider's verbal prescription

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verbal prescriptions should be avoided due to the risk of errors. If a verbal prescription is necessary, it should be promptly written and signed by the healthcare provider, typically within 24 hours. Following agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions is crucial. In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to request the healthcare provider to document the prescription in the client's record before leaving the unit. Calling the nursing supervisor to accept the verbal prescription without documentation, telling the healthcare provider to delay treatment until documented, and directly changing the IV fluid based on verbal orders all pose risks and do not align with best practices in medication administration.

3. A nursing assistant who has been employed in the long-term care center for 8 weeks is consistently taking extended lunch breaks. The nursing assistant's behavior has caused problems with client care during lunch hours. What is the appropriate way for the nurse to deal with this situation?

• A. Ignoring the situation
• B. Documenting the problem in the nursing assistant's personnel file
• C. Asking other staff members to cover for the nursing assistant
• D. Meeting with the nursing assistant to discuss the behavior and initiate problem-solving measures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking extended lunch breaks is an unacceptable behavior, especially when it affects client care. The appropriate way for the nurse to deal with this situation is to meet with the nursing assistant to discuss the behavior and initiate problem-solving measures. This direct approach allows for open communication and the opportunity to address the issue effectively. Ignoring the situation (Choice A), asking other staff members to cover (Choice C), or documenting the problem in the nursing assistant's personnel file (Choice B) are not effective solutions. Ignoring the behavior does not address the issue, asking others to cover may not solve the problem at its root, and documenting the problem should come after attempting to resolve the issue through communication and problem-solving first.

4. The nurse is working the same shift two days in a row. On the first of these days, while caring for one assigned client, the client says, "Will you promise me you will be my nurse tomorrow?"? Which response is most appropriate?

• A. "Yes, I promise you I will be your nurse during my shift tomorrow."?
• B. "You will need to speak to my supervisor about this request."?
• C. "While I cannot promise that I will be your nurse tomorrow, I can talk to the charge nurse about this request."?
• D. "Because of confidentiality, I cannot discuss tomorrow's assignments with you."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response is to maintain confidentiality regarding work assignments. It is crucial to uphold patient privacy and not disclose information about staff schedules or assignments. Choices A, B, and C involve promising or redirecting the patient, which is not suitable in this situation. Choice D respects confidentiality and is the most professional response in this scenario.

5. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

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