NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Bank
1. Which of the following microorganisms are considered normal body flora?
- A. staphylococcus on the skin
- B. streptococcus in the nares
- C. candida albicans in the vagina
- D. pseudomonas in the blood
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Staphylococcus is considered normal body flora as it is commonly found on the skin, being a part of the normal microbiota. While streptococcus in the nares can be part of the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract, it is not as common or as widespread as staphylococcus on the skin. Candida albicans in the vagina is not considered normal flora; it is a common opportunistic pathogen in the vagina. Pseudomonas in the blood is also not considered normal body flora; pseudomonas is not typically found in the blood as part of the normal microbiota.
2. In a disaster situation, the nurse assessing a diabetic client on insulin assesses for all of the following except:
- A. diabetic signs and symptoms.
- B. nutritional status.
- C. bleeding problems.
- D. availability of insulin.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a disaster situation, when assessing a diabetic client on insulin, the nurse needs to consider various factors. Diabetic signs and symptoms, nutritional status, and availability of insulin are crucial aspects to assess for appropriate management during a crisis. However, bleeding problems are not directly related to diabetes or insulin therapy. Therefore, assessing for bleeding problems is not a priority in this context. Choice C, bleeding problems, is the correct answer as it is not typically associated with diabetes, unlike the other options provided.
3. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?
- A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
- B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
- C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
- D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, characterized by maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Antibiotic therapy is usually indicated for impetigo. Chickenpox, a highly contagious disease, presents with a history of high fever followed by a vesicular rash, different from the described maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage. Choice A is incorrect as the presentation is not consistent with chickenpox. Choice B is incorrect because impetigo is contagious, especially through direct contact. Choice D is also incorrect as impetigo is a contagious skin infection regardless of others having open wounds or lesions.
4. When administering NSAID adjunctive therapy to an elderly client with cancer, the nurse must monitor:
- A. BUN and creatinine.
- B. creatinine and calcium.
- C. Hgb and Hct.
- D. BUN and CFT.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When an elderly client with cancer is receiving NSAID therapy, monitoring BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine levels is crucial. NSAIDs can cause renal toxicity, especially in the elderly. BUN and creatinine levels help assess renal function and detect early signs of renal impairment. Monitoring creatinine alone (Choice B) is not sufficient as BUN provides complementary information about renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin (Hgb) and hematocrit (Hct) (Choice C) is important for assessing anemia but not specific to NSAID therapy in the elderly. CFT (Choice D) is not a standard abbreviation in this context, and monitoring coagulation function is not directly related to NSAID therapy in this scenario.
5. At what point in the nurse-client relationship should termination first be addressed?
- A. in the working phase
- B. in the termination phase
- C. in the orientation phase
- D. when the client initially brings up the topic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Termination in the nurse-client relationship should first be addressed in the orientation phase. This is because the client has a right to know the parameters of the relationship from the beginning. During the orientation phase, it is important to discuss if the relationship is time-limited, inform the client about the number of sessions, or explain that it is open-ended with the termination date to be negotiated later. Addressing termination in the orientation phase helps establish transparency and clear communication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because termination discussions should ideally start at the beginning of the relationship to set appropriate expectations.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access