NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Bank
1. Which of the following microorganisms are considered normal body flora?
- A. staphylococcus on the skin
- B. streptococcus in the nares
- C. candida albicans in the vagina
- D. pseudomonas in the blood
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Staphylococcus is considered normal body flora as it is commonly found on the skin, being a part of the normal microbiota. While streptococcus in the nares can be part of the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract, it is not as common or as widespread as staphylococcus on the skin. Candida albicans in the vagina is not considered normal flora; it is a common opportunistic pathogen in the vagina. Pseudomonas in the blood is also not considered normal body flora; pseudomonas is not typically found in the blood as part of the normal microbiota.
2. Which of the following indicates a hazard for a client on oxygen therapy?
- A. A 'No Smoking' sign is on the door.
- B. The client is wearing a synthetic gown.
- C. Electrical equipment is grounded.
- D. Matches are removed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client is wearing a synthetic gown. A synthetic gown might generate sparks of static electricity, which can be a fire hazard, especially in the presence of oxygen. Clients on oxygen therapy should wear cotton gowns to minimize the risk of fire. The other options are not hazards for a client on oxygen therapy: having a 'No Smoking' sign on the door promotes safety by preventing smoking, ensuring electrical equipment is grounded reduces the risk of electrical hazards, and removing matches decreases the risk of fire hazards.
3. The nurse is transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed. Which is the correct procedure?
- A. Pull the client toward you, and pivot him on the unaffected limb.
- B. Pull the client toward you, and pivot him on the affected limb.
- C. Push the client toward the bed, and pivot him on the affected limb.
- D. Stand the client on both legs, and push him toward the bed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed, the correct procedure is to pull the client toward you, which reduces workload force. By pivoting the client on the unaffected limb, strength is maintained to support the affected limb while moving towards the bed. Choice A is correct because it ensures a safe and effective transfer technique. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they involve incorrect positioning and movements that could potentially harm the client or increase the risk of injury. Pulling the client towards you puts less strain on your back and reduces the risk of injury. Pivoting on the unaffected limb ensures better support for the client's affected limb during the transfer process.
4. Which of these clients should the LPN/LVN see first?
- A. a client with a newly placed NG tube who is complaining of pain around the face and a plugged nose
- B. a post-op prostatectomy client who complains of bladder spasms and blood in his foley bag
- C. a client in an arm cast who is 2 days post-op and reports feelings of numbness and tingling in her affected arm
- D. a client newly diagnosed with Hepatitis A who reports stomach pain and itchy skin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Numbness and tingling hours or days after a cast is applied may indicate compartment syndrome and should be reported to a medical provider right away. This is a potential emergency situation that requires immediate attention to prevent complications. The other options present expected or typical symptoms related to their diagnosis, which do not require immediate intervention. Complaints related to a newly placed NG tube such as pain around the face and a plugged nose may require assessment and intervention but are not as urgent as potential compartment syndrome. Bladder spasms and blood in the foley bag post-prostatectomy are common postoperative issues that can be addressed after the client in the arm cast with potential compartment syndrome is seen. Stomach pain and itchy skin in a client with Hepatitis A are common symptoms of the condition and do not indicate an emergency situation.
5. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?
- A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
- B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
- C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
- D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
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