Nursing Elites

1. In an obstetrical emergency, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first after the baby delivers?

• A. Place extra padding under the mother to absorb blood from the delivery.
• B. Cut the umbilical cord using sterile scissors.
• C. Suction the baby's mouth and nose.
• D. Wrap the baby in a clean blanket to preserve warmth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an obstetrical emergency, the immediate priority after the baby delivers is to clear the baby's airway by suctioning the mouth and nose to ensure effective breathing. This action helps prevent potential complications like meconium aspiration. Cutting the umbilical cord, wrapping the baby in a blanket, or placing extra padding under the mother can follow once the baby's airway is clear. Therefore, suctioning the baby's mouth and nose is the most critical and time-sensitive intervention in this scenario. Placing extra padding under the mother is not the immediate priority as ensuring the baby's airway is clear. Cutting the umbilical cord and wrapping the baby in a clean blanket are important but can wait until after ensuring the baby's breathing is not compromised.

2. What is the term for the tendency of a drug to combine with its receptor?

• A. potency
• B. efficacy
• C. kinetics
• D. affinity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'affinity.' Affinity refers to the close relationship or mutual attraction between a drug and its receptor, indicating the strength of the drug-receptor bonding. Potency (Choice A) is related to the dose of a drug needed to produce a specific effect. Efficacy (Choice B) refers to a drug's ability to generate the desired effect. Kinetics (Choice C) deals with forces affecting the motion of material bodies or changes in a system, which is not directly associated with the bonding between a drug and its receptor.

3. A nurse discusses staff empowerment with the nursing team. The nurse explains that staff empowerment has which function?

• A. Fosters the growth of others so that they are less dependent on the leader
• B. Means that the staff has the power to reprimand and punish any individual who is not meeting the standards of care delivery
• C. Indicates that the nurse leader will make decisions regarding the nursing unit and expects that the staff will comply with the changes
• D. Allows the staff to make every decision regarding employee scheduling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Staff empowerment fosters the growth of others and facilitates their development so that they are less dependent on their leader. This empowerment is about enhancing skills and autonomy, not about reprimanding or punishing others (Choice B). Empowerment involves shared decision-making and autonomy, not unilateral decision-making by the leader (Choice C). Moreover, staff empowerment does not mean that staff should make every decision regarding operational aspects like employee scheduling (Choice D). It is primarily focused on developing individuals' capabilities and fostering independence within the team.

4. An LPN is talking with a client scheduled to undergo a vasectomy in the next few minutes. He states, "I know I signed the form and all, but I'm not feeling so sure of this. It can be reversed pretty easily, right?"? What is the LPN's best response?

• A. "Yes, vasectomies can be reversed, but once you have it, you may regret it later."?
• B. "It's normal to feel a little nervous before a procedure like this."?
• C. "It sounds like you have a few more questions you'd like answered. Let me grab the doctor quickly so he can answer them for you."?
• D. "It sounds like you might be a little nervous. Don't worry, this is a pretty minor procedure, and the doctor doing it is the best we have. You're in great hands."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the LPN is to acknowledge the client's concerns and offer to provide more information. By offering to get the doctor to answer any additional questions, the LPN shows respect for the client's right to informed consent. Option A provides some information but dismisses the client's uncertainty and implies they won't regret the decision, which may not be the case. Option B acknowledges nervousness but doesn't directly address the client's request for more information. Option D attempts to reassure the client but fails to address the need for additional questions to be answered by the doctor.

5. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of a nasopharyngeal airway to insert, which body part should be measured on the client?

• A. corner of the mouth to tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway is measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. This measurement ensures that the airway is of the correct length to reach the nasopharynx without being too long or too short. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the appropriate measurement for selecting the correct size of a nasopharyngeal airway. The distance from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear (Choice A) is used to measure for an oropharyngeal airway, not a nasopharyngeal airway. Similarly, the other choices (B and C) do not correlate with the correct measurement of a nasopharyngeal airway.

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