Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?

• A. stunting of height in teens and young adults
• B. propensity for anovulatory uterine bleeding
• C. intractable diarrhea
• D. tendon rupture

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.

2. A 51-year-old client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig disease) is admitted to the hospital because his condition is deteriorating. The client tells the nurse that he wants a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The nurse should provide the client with which information?

• A. Oral consent is not sufficient, and the client's request will be honored by all healthcare providers.
• B. Consent must be obtained from the family.
• C. The DNR request should be discussed with the healthcare provider, who will write the order.
• D. The healthcare provider makes the final decision about a DNR request.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client requests a DNR order, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider so that the provider may discuss the request with the client. A DNR order should be written, not verbal, following agency and state guidelines. Therefore, the correct answer is that the DNR request should be discussed with the healthcare provider, who will write the order. Option A is incorrect as oral consent is not sufficient for a DNR order. Option B is incorrect because the client, not the family, has the authority to request a DNR order. Option D is incorrect because the healthcare provider discusses the request with the client but does not make the final decision.

3. When evaluating the lab work of a client in hepatic coma, which of the following lab tests is most important?

• A. blood urea nitrogen
• B. serum calcium
• C. serum ammonia
• D. serum creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is in hepatic coma due to liver failure, the liver cannot metabolize amino acids completely, leading to elevated ammonia levels. Increased ammonia can cause brain-tissue irritation, worsening the coma. Therefore, monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial in assessing the severity of hepatic coma. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of hepatic coma. Blood urea nitrogen primarily assesses kidney function, serum calcium levels are not directly related to hepatic coma, and serum creatinine is more indicative of kidney function rather than liver function in this scenario.

4. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell's palsy
• B. Guillain-Barr� syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

5. To ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort when using a rigid splint, what should be done?

• A. Place the client on a stretcher before splinting.
• B. Place the client on a long spine board before splinting.
• C. Pad the spaces between the body part and the splint.
• D. Ensure that the splint conforms to the body curves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct. When using a rigid splint, it is essential to pad the spaces between the body part and the splint to ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort. This padding helps prevent pressure points and ensures a proper fit of the splint without causing discomfort. Placing the client on a stretcher or a long spine board before splinting (choices A and B) may be necessary for transportation but does not directly relate to the proper use of a rigid splint. Ensuring that the splint conforms to the body curves (choice D) is important but not as crucial as padding the spaces to prevent discomfort and ensure proper immobilization.

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