NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care
1. Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?
- A. stunting of height in teens and young adults
- B. propensity for anovulatory uterine bleeding
- C. intractable diarrhea
- D. tendon rupture
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.
2. What is the most common cause of injury from a house fire?
- A. Explosion
- B. Falls from second-story windows
- C. Thermal damage to skin and body surfaces
- D. Inhalation injury
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Inhalation injury is the most common cause of injury from a house fire. When a fire occurs, the smoke produced contains harmful gases and particles that can be inhaled, leading to serious respiratory issues. This makes inhalation injury the primary concern during a house fire. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be the primary cause of injury. While explosions may occur in some cases, inhalation of smoke and toxic fumes is generally the most prevalent danger. Falls from windows and thermal damage to the skin are also significant risks but typically occur after inhalation injuries in the sequence of events during a house fire.
3. A client who had a stroke has left-side weakness and is having difficulty holding utensils while eating. To which of these services does the nurse suggest a referral?
- A. Physical therapy
- B. Occupational therapy
- C. Home care
- D. Social services
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An occupational therapist assists clients with impairments in performing activities of daily living, such as feeding themselves with the use of adaptive devices. In this case, the client needs help with holding utensils while eating, falling under the scope of occupational therapy. Home care provides general support services but doesn't specifically address the client's need for utensil use. Social services focus on counseling and financial aspects of care, not physical rehabilitation like occupational therapy does. Physical therapy primarily deals with physical disabilities through exercises, which is not the primary concern for the client's difficulty in holding utensils.
4. What is a significant point about Shigella that the nurse should acknowledge upon identifying it in a stool culture?
- A. People who have been in contact with the client need to be tested.
- B. Shigella is an airborne infection.
- C. Shigella is a bacteria sometimes found in stagnant water.
- D. The nurse should wear a one-way breathing apparatus when giving client care.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shigella is a bacteria sometimes found in stagnant water. Transmission of Shigella is typically oral-fecal, so good hand washing and the use of gloves are the best means of prevention when caring for a client with Shigella. The bacteria can be found in food and water contaminated by fecal material. Incidences of Shigella are reportable in many states. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While it is important for close contacts to be aware and practice good hygiene, testing is not routinely indicated. Shigella is not an airborne infection; it is transmitted through contaminated food or water. A one-way breathing apparatus is not necessary for caring for a patient with Shigella; standard precautions, including handwashing and gloves, are sufficient.
5. A new mother asks the nurse, 'I was told that my infant received my antibodies during pregnancy. Does that mean that my infant is protected against infections?' Which statement should the nurse make in response to the mother?
- A. The immune system of an infant is immature, and the infant is at risk for infection.
- B. The transfer of your antibodies protects your infant until the infant is 12 months old.
- C. Yes, your infant is protected from all infections.
- D. If you breastfeed, your infant is protected from infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies supplements the infant's weak response to infection until approximately 3 to 4 months of age. While the infant starts producing immunoglobulin (Ig) soon after birth, it only reaches about 60% of the adult IgG level, 75% of the adult IgM level, and 20% of the adult IgA level by 1 year of age. Breast milk provides additional IgA protection. Although the immune system matures during infancy, full protection against infections is not achieved until early childhood, putting the infant at risk for infections. Choice B is incorrect because maternal antibody protection typically lasts around 3 to 4 months, not until the infant is 12 months old. Choice C is incorrect as infants are not shielded from all infections due to their immature immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while breastfeeding offers extra protection, it does not guarantee complete immunity against infections.
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