Nursing Elites

1. Which cultural group has the highest incidence of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

• A. Asians
• B. Caucasians
• C. Hispanics
• D. African Americans

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Caucasians. Studies have shown that Caucasians have the highest incidence of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) compared to other cultural groups. While IBD can affect individuals from various backgrounds, the prevalence is notably higher in Caucasians. Asians, Hispanics, and African Americans have a lower incidence of IBD compared to Caucasians, making them incorrect choices in this context.

2. A safety measure to implement when transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair is:

• A. standing the client and walking him or her to the wheelchair.
• B. moving the wheelchair close to the client's bed and standing and pivoting the client on his unaffected extremity to the wheelchair.
• C. moving the wheelchair close to the client's bed and standing and pivoting the client on his affected extremity to the wheelchair.
• D. having the client stand and push his body to the wheelchair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair, it is crucial to ensure their safety. The correct safety measure involves moving the wheelchair close to the client's bed and having the client stand and pivot on his unaffected extremity to the wheelchair. This method provides support with the unaffected limb, reducing the risk of falls and promoting a safer transfer. Choice A is incorrect because walking the client is unsafe and not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as pivoting the client on his affected extremity can lead to injury or falls due to weakness or lack of control. Choice D is incorrect as it puts the client at risk by requiring them to push their body, which may not be feasible or safe for someone with hemiparesis.

3. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. Protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.

4. The nurse manager of a quality improvement program asks a nurse in the neurological unit to conduct a retrospective audit. Which action should the auditing nurse plan to perform in this type of audit?

• A. Checking the crash cart to ensure that all needed supplies are readily available in case of an emergency
• B. Checking the documentation written by a new nursing graduate on her assigned clients at the end of the shift
• C. Reviewing neurological assessment checklists for all clients on the unit to ensure that these assessments are being conducted as prescribed
• D. Obtaining the assigned medical record from the hospital's medical record room to review documentation made during a client's hospital stay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, focuses on processes contributing to client safety and care outcomes. Retrospective audits involve reviewing medical records after discharge for compliance with standards. Concurrent audits assess staff compliance during a client's stay. Therefore, obtaining the medical record from the hospital's record room for review is crucial in a retrospective audit. Options A, B, and C are more suited for concurrent audits as they involve real-time assessment during a client's stay.

5. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

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