Nursing Elites

1. To ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort when using a rigid splint, what should be done?

• A. Place the client on a stretcher before splinting.
• B. Place the client on a long spine board before splinting.
• C. Pad the spaces between the body part and the splint.
• D. Ensure that the splint conforms to the body curves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct. When using a rigid splint, it is essential to pad the spaces between the body part and the splint to ensure proper immobilization and increase client comfort. This padding helps prevent pressure points and ensures a proper fit of the splint without causing discomfort. Placing the client on a stretcher or a long spine board before splinting (choices A and B) may be necessary for transportation but does not directly relate to the proper use of a rigid splint. Ensuring that the splint conforms to the body curves (choice D) is important but not as crucial as padding the spaces to prevent discomfort and ensure proper immobilization.

2. A case manager is reviewing notations made in clients' records. Which note indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up?

• A. A client who exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy.
• B. A client who has sustained a stroke and dresses herself.
• C. A client with a spinal cord injury transfers himself from a bed to a wheelchair.
• D. Normal neurological findings are noted in a client with a cerebral aneurysm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A case manager is responsible for coordinating a client's care and monitoring for unexpected outcomes. The situation that indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up is when a client exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy. This indicates a deteriorating condition that requires urgent intervention. Choices B, C, and D describe expected outcomes or normal findings related to specific conditions, which do not demand immediate follow-up.

3. In which situation is the nurse upholding the ethical principle of fidelity?

• A. Providing complete information regarding treatment options to a client with newly diagnosed cancer
• B. Allowing a client to decide when to receive daily hygiene care
• C. Inserting a 19-gauge intravenous catheter into a client requiring a blood transfusion
• D. Contacting the health care provider about the client's request to incorporate complementary therapies for pain into the treatment plan

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fidelity is the ethical principle of keeping promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Contacting the health care provider about the client's request to incorporate complementary therapies for pain into the treatment plan exemplifies fidelity. By advocating for the client's preferences and ensuring their requests are addressed, the nurse demonstrates a commitment to fulfilling promises made to the client. Allowing a client to decide when to receive daily hygiene care relates to respecting autonomy, not fidelity. Inserting a 19-gauge intravenous catheter into a client needing a blood transfusion aligns with beneficence, as it involves taking action to provide necessary treatment. Providing complete information to a client with newly diagnosed cancer about treatment options reflects justice, promoting fairness and equity in healthcare by offering equal access to information and treatment choices.

4. A graduate nurse hired to work in a medical unit of a hospital is attending an orientation session. The nurse educator, discussing care maps, asks the graduate nurse whether she understands how a care map is used. Which response indicates understanding?

• A. The care map outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge
• B. The care map is a plan that is used only by the nurse to provide client care
• C. The care map is a standard plan, rather than an individualized one, that is developed strictly by a nurse and used for a client with a particular diagnosis
• D. The care map is developed by a nurse and identifies nursing diagnoses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A care map, also known as a critical pathway, outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge or the end of a treatment phase. It includes clinical assessments, treatments, dietary interventions, activity therapies, client education, and discharge planning. While it may identify nursing diagnoses, a care map is developed by all disciplines caring for the client type and is used by the interdisciplinary team, not just the nurse alone. Choice B is incorrect because a care map is not solely for the nurse but for the entire interdisciplinary team. Choice C is incorrect as care maps are individualized plans developed by the interdisciplinary team, not just by a nurse. Choice D is incorrect as a care map is not solely about nursing diagnoses but encompasses a comprehensive plan of care.

5. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

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