Nursing Elites

1. When suctioning a client, what is the usual amount of time the nurse should spend for each suction pass?

• A. 2 seconds
• B. 10 seconds
• C. 20 seconds
• D. 30 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ten seconds is the usual amount of time the nurse should spend for each suction pass. Two seconds is not enough time to effectively remove secretions, while 20 and 30 seconds are too long and could lead to hypoxia and tissue trauma. Therefore, the correct choice is 10 seconds, as it strikes a balance between removing secretions adequately and minimizing the risks associated with prolonged suctioning.

2. The nurse teaching a client about hepatitis and its transmission should explain that one type of hepatitis does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase. Which type is it?

• A. hepatitis A
• B. hepatitis B
• C. hepatitis C
• D. hepatitis D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hepatitis A. Hepatitis A does not produce a carrier state after its acute phase. It is transmitted via contaminated water or food through the oral-fecal route and is not blood-borne. Hepatitis B, choice B, can lead to a carrier state where the person remains infectious despite being asymptomatic. Hepatitis C, choice C, can also result in a chronic carrier state. Hepatitis D, choice D, is an incomplete virus that requires hepatitis B to replicate; it does not lead to a carrier state on its own.

3. When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, the nurse should administer:

• A. Indomethacin
• B. Codeine
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Compazine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, Compazine is the appropriate medication to administer. Compazine, also known as prochlorperazine, is commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain that trigger nausea and vomiting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Indomethacin, Codeine, and Ibuprofen are not typically used to manage nausea associated with Morphine epidural analgesia.

4. Why would a nurse employed at a hospital be asked by a nurse manager to review the organizational chart?

• A. To be aware of the geographic area that the organization serves
• B. To be familiar with the organization's line of authority
• C. To understand the organization's reason for existence
• D. To be familiar with the beliefs and values of the organization

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To be familiar with the organization's line of authority.' Organizational charts provide a visual representation of the chain of command, reporting relationships, and structure within an organization. This helps employees understand who they report to, who reports to them, and the overall hierarchy. Choice A is incorrect because understanding the geographic area served is more about the organization's scope, not depicted in an organizational chart. Choice C is incorrect as it relates to the organization's reason for existence, usually found in its mission statement. Choice D is incorrect as beliefs and values are linked to the organization's culture, not typically shown in an organizational chart.

5. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

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