Nursing Elites

1. The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:

• A. scalding from hot bath water or spills
• B. contact with hot surfaces such as stoves and fireplaces
• C. contact with flammable liquids or gases resulting in flash burns
• D. sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most common type of first-degree burn in small children is sunburn, often due to lack of protection and overexposure to the sun. This type of burn highlights the importance of educating parents about using sunscreens and ensuring children are adequately protected from the sun's harmful rays. Choices A, B, and C describe scenarios that can lead to burns but are not the most common type of first-degree burn in small children, making them incorrect.

2. What dietary alterations should a pregnant client with congenital heart disease expect?

• A. reduced calories and reduced fat
• B. caffeine and sodium restrictions
• C. decreased protein and increased complex carbohydrates
• D. fluid restriction and reduced calories

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a pregnant client with congenital heart disease, caffeine should be restricted as it can increase heart rate, which is already under stress due to pregnancy. Sodium restrictions may be necessary to prevent fluid retention, which can worsen the client's heart condition. Decreasing calories, fat, protein, or fluid may not be appropriate as these can lead to nutrient deficiencies or inadequate energy intake, which is crucial during pregnancy. Therefore, options A, C, and D are not the expected dietary alterations in the client's diet during pregnancy with congenital heart disease.

3. What condition is mammography used to detect?

• A. pain
• B. tumor
• C. edema
• D. epilepsy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mammography is specifically used to detect tumors or abnormal growths, especially in breast tissue. It is not a tool for identifying pain, edema, or epilepsy. Therefore, the correct answer is 'tumor.' Pain is a symptom, edema is swelling, and epilepsy is a neurological disorder; none of these are conditions typically detected through mammography.

4. To assess a client's ankle ROM, which ROM exercises should the nurse have them perform?

• A. flexion, extension, hyperextension
• B. flexion, extension, abduction, adduction
• C. external rotation, internal rotation
• D. extension, flexion, inversion, eversion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is extension, flexion, inversion, and eversion. These exercises help assess the full range of motion of the ankles. Flexion and extension evaluate the bending and straightening movements of the ankle joint, respectively. Inversion and eversion assess the inward and outward movements of the foot at the ankle joint. Hyperextension, abduction, and adduction are not specific movements of the ankle joint, making choices A and B incorrect. External and internal rotation are movements more related to joints like the hip or shoulder, not the ankle, making choice C incorrect.

5. During an annual physical exam, a client is diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH). This client is likely to have a consult with which type of physician?

• A. gynecologist
• B. physiatrist
• C. urologist
• D. proctologist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) would typically have a consult with a urologist. Urologists specialize in urinary tract and prostatic diseases, making them the appropriate choice for managing BPH. A gynecologist focuses on diseases of the female reproductive tract, so they are not relevant in this case. A physiatrist specializes in rehabilitation care, which is not directly related to the treatment of BPH. A proctologist specializes in lower colonic digestive diseases, which are unrelated to BPH.

Similar Questions