Nursing Elites

1. A nursing care plan for a client with sleep problems has been implemented. All of the following should be expected outcomes except:

• A. the client reports no episodes of awakening during the night.
• B. the client falls asleep within 1 hour of going to bed.
• C. the client reports satisfaction with their amount of sleep.
• D. the client rates sleep as an 8 or more on the visual analog scale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An expected outcome for a nursing care plan targeting sleep problems is that the client reports no episodes of awakening during the night, the client reports satisfaction with their amount of sleep, and the client rates sleep as an 8 or more on the visual analog scale. Falling asleep within 1 hour of going to bed is not necessarily an expected outcome. While it is generally desirable for individuals to fall asleep within a reasonable time frame, this specific timeframe may vary among individuals, and it is not a strict criterion for successful sleep outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer is that the client falls asleep within 1 hour of going to bed, as this is not a definitive measure of the effectiveness of the nursing care plan for sleep problems.

2. When planning play activities for a hospitalized school-age child, a nurse uses Erikson's theory of psychosocial development to select an appropriate activity. The nurse selects an activity that will assist the child in developing which developmental goal?

• A. A sense of industry
• B. Autonomy
• C. A sense of trust
• D. Initiative

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A sense of industry.' According to Erikson, the central task of the school-age years is the development of a sense of industry. During this stage, children engage in activities like schoolwork, crafts, chores, hobbies, and sports to develop a sense of competence and productivity. The development of trust is the primary task of infancy, autonomy is the task of toddlerhood, and initiative is the task of the preschool years. Therefore, in this scenario, focusing on fostering a sense of industry aligns with the developmental goals of a school-age child.

3. A client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Retape the NG tube.
• B. Clamp the NG tube.
• C. Remove the NG tube.
• D. Check the NG tube placement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting, the nurse should first check the NG tube placement. Vomiting can be a sign of tube displacement, which can lead to serious complications. Retaping the tube (Choice A), clamping it (Choice B), or removing it (Choice C) without first assessing its placement can be harmful or ineffective. Checking the NG tube placement is crucial as it ensures that the tube is in the correct position and prevents potential complications. Retaping the NG tube (Choice A) is incorrect because the priority is to check the placement first. Clamping the NG tube (Choice B) or removing it (Choice C) without verifying the placement can be dangerous if the tube is dislodged. Thus, these actions should not be taken before confirming the tube's position.

4. Which of the following lab values is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease?

• A. high HDL cholesterol
• B. low HDL cholesterol
• C. low total cholesterol
• D. low triglycerides

Correct answer: B

Rationale: High HDL cholesterol is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease because HDL cholesterol is known as 'good' cholesterol. It helps remove other forms of cholesterol, like LDL cholesterol, from the bloodstream, reducing the risk of plaque buildup in the arteries. Low HDL cholesterol (Choice B) is actually a risk factor for cardiovascular disease because it means there is less of the 'good' cholesterol to perform its protective functions. Low total cholesterol (Choice C) and low triglycerides (Choice D) are not necessarily associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease, as the balance and types of cholesterol play a more crucial role in heart health.

5. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

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