Nursing Elites

1. A nursing care plan for a client with sleep problems has been implemented. All of the following should be expected outcomes except:

• A. the client reports no episodes of awakening during the night.
• B. the client falls asleep within 1 hour of going to bed.
• C. the client reports satisfaction with their amount of sleep.
• D. the client rates sleep as an 8 or more on the visual analog scale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An expected outcome for a nursing care plan targeting sleep problems is that the client reports no episodes of awakening during the night, the client reports satisfaction with their amount of sleep, and the client rates sleep as an 8 or more on the visual analog scale. Falling asleep within 1 hour of going to bed is not necessarily an expected outcome. While it is generally desirable for individuals to fall asleep within a reasonable time frame, this specific timeframe may vary among individuals, and it is not a strict criterion for successful sleep outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer is that the client falls asleep within 1 hour of going to bed, as this is not a definitive measure of the effectiveness of the nursing care plan for sleep problems.

2. When are pressure ulcers most likely to occur?

• A. when clients are left in one position in bed for extended periods of time.
• B. when clients are underweight.
• C. when clients are overweight.
• D. only in underweight and overweight clients.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pressure ulcers usually occur over bony prominences and are caused by decreased circulation. The client who is left in one position in bed for extended periods of time is more prone to decreased circulation to an area of the body and to acquiring a pressure ulcer. Choices B and C are incorrect as pressure ulcers are not exclusive to underweight or overweight clients. The key factor is prolonged pressure on the skin, not the weight of the client. Therefore, the correct answer is that pressure ulcers are most likely to occur when clients are immobilized in one position for extended periods of time.

3. A client is on a clear liquid diet. She drinks half of a 12-ounce juice, 4 ounces of soup, and has a 6-ounce JELLO�. How many milliliters of fluid did the patient ingest?

• A. 440 ml
• B. 480 ml
• C. 220 ml
• D. 660 ml

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the total amount of fluid ingested, convert the ounces to milliliters. Given that 1 ounce is equal to 30 ml, the breakdown is as follows: Juice (6 ounces): 6 x 30 = 180 ml. Soup (4 ounces): 4 x 30 = 120 ml. JELLO� (6 ounces): 6 x 30 = 180 ml. Adding these together: 180 ml (juice) + 120 ml (soup) + 180 ml (JELLO�) = 480 ml. Therefore, the patient ingested a total of 480 ml of fluid. It's important to note that gelatin, ice cream, and similar items that are liquid at room temperature should be considered as fluids. Choice A, 440 ml, is incorrect as it does not account for the correct calculation. Choice C, 220 ml, is incorrect as it is significantly lower than the correct total. Choice D, 660 ml, is incorrect as it overestimates the total fluid intake.

4. A nurse is assisting with data collection of a client who has sustained circumferential burns of both legs. What should the nurse examine first?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Peripheral pulses
• C. Blood pressure (BP)
• D. Radial pulse rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for a client with circumferential burns to the legs is to examine peripheral pulses. This is essential to ensure adequate circulation to the extremities. Circumferential burns can lead to compartment syndrome, causing decreased circulation to the affected limbs. Checking peripheral pulses is crucial to monitor for any signs of compromised circulation. While heart rate and blood pressure are important assessments in general, in the context of circumferential burns, the immediate concern is the risk of impaired circulation to the extremities. Therefore, assessing peripheral pulses takes precedence in this situation.

5. Upon first meeting, a new nurse manager makes eye contact, smiles, initiates conversation about the previous work experience of nurses, and encourages active participation by nurses in the dialogue. Her behavior is an example of:

• A. Aggressiveness.
• B. Passive aggressiveness.
• C. Passiveness.
• D. Assertiveness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Assertiveness.' This nurse manager is demonstrating assertive behavior by confidently engaging with the nurses, showing interest in their work experience, and encouraging active participation. Aggressive behavior is forceful and dominating, while passive behavior is submissive and timid. Passive-aggressive behavior involves indirect manipulation or control, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.

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