Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assisting with data collection of a client who has sustained circumferential burns of both legs. What should the nurse examine first?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Peripheral pulses
• C. Blood pressure (BP)
• D. Radial pulse rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for a client with circumferential burns to the legs is to examine peripheral pulses. This is essential to ensure adequate circulation to the extremities. Circumferential burns can lead to compartment syndrome, causing decreased circulation to the affected limbs. Checking peripheral pulses is crucial to monitor for any signs of compromised circulation. While heart rate and blood pressure are important assessments in general, in the context of circumferential burns, the immediate concern is the risk of impaired circulation to the extremities. Therefore, assessing peripheral pulses takes precedence in this situation.

2. Why would a nurse employed at a hospital be asked by a nurse manager to review the organizational chart?

• A. To be aware of the geographic area that the organization serves
• B. To be familiar with the organization's line of authority
• C. To understand the organization's reason for existence
• D. To be familiar with the beliefs and values of the organization

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To be familiar with the organization's line of authority.' Organizational charts provide a visual representation of the chain of command, reporting relationships, and structure within an organization. This helps employees understand who they report to, who reports to them, and the overall hierarchy. Choice A is incorrect because understanding the geographic area served is more about the organization's scope, not depicted in an organizational chart. Choice C is incorrect as it relates to the organization's reason for existence, usually found in its mission statement. Choice D is incorrect as beliefs and values are linked to the organization's culture, not typically shown in an organizational chart.

3. When observing a dressing change by a graduate nurse on a Stage III pressure ulcer to the greater trochanter by the staff nurse, a need for further teaching is indicated after the following observation by the nurse:

• A. The new graduate nurse irrigates the pressure ulcer with 50cc of NS.
• B. The new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide.
• C. The new graduate packs the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in NS.
• D. The new graduate applies a Duoderm dressing over the wound after cleansing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the new graduate irrigates the pressure ulcer with half-strength hydrogen peroxide. Pressure ulcers should not be cleaned with substances that are cytotoxic, such as hydrogen peroxide or betadine. This can cause further damage to the wound and delay the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because irrigating the pressure ulcer with normal saline is an appropriate practice. Choice C is incorrect because packing the wound with sterile kerlix soaked in normal saline is also an appropriate step. Choice D is incorrect because applying a Duoderm dressing after cleansing is a standard procedure in wound care.

4. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of a nasopharyngeal airway to insert, which body part should be measured on the client?

• A. corner of the mouth to tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway is measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. This measurement ensures that the airway is of the correct length to reach the nasopharynx without being too long or too short. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the appropriate measurement for selecting the correct size of a nasopharyngeal airway. The distance from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear (Choice A) is used to measure for an oropharyngeal airway, not a nasopharyngeal airway. Similarly, the other choices (B and C) do not correlate with the correct measurement of a nasopharyngeal airway.

5. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

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