Nursing Elites

1. After delivery, a newborn undergoes an Apgar assessment. What does this scoring system evaluate?

• A. heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, reflex irritability
• B. heart rate, bleeding, cyanosis, edema
• C. bleeding, reflex, edema
• D. respiratory effort, heart rate, seizures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar scoring system, developed by Virginia Apgar, an anesthesiologist, evaluates newborns based on five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. These parameters provide a quick and simple assessment of a newborn's overall condition and the need for immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not encompass the essential elements evaluated by the Apgar scoring system.

2. A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery
• B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
• C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes
• D. Telling the client that it is her surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client's legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client's part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.

3. Which of the following is responsible for laws mandating the reporting of certain infections and diseases?

• A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
• B. individual state laws
• C. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
• D. Health and Human Services (HHS)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individual state laws mandate the reporting of infectious diseases. The list of reportable diseases varies from state to state and is overseen by state health departments. While the CDC plays a significant role in disease surveillance, reporting infectious diseases is primarily governed by individual state laws. The CDC's role is to provide support, guidance, and expertise to state health departments. The National Institutes of Health (NIH) primarily focus on biomedical and health-related research, not on mandating disease reporting. Health and Human Services (HHS) is a federal department that oversees various agencies, but the responsibility for mandating disease reporting lies with individual states.

4. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell's palsy
• B. Guillain-Barr� syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

5. A client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Retape the NG tube.
• B. Clamp the NG tube.
• C. Remove the NG tube.
• D. Check the NG tube placement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting, the nurse should first check the NG tube placement. Vomiting can be a sign of tube displacement, which can lead to serious complications. Retaping the tube (Choice A), clamping it (Choice B), or removing it (Choice C) without first assessing its placement can be harmful or ineffective. Checking the NG tube placement is crucial as it ensures that the tube is in the correct position and prevents potential complications. Retaping the NG tube (Choice A) is incorrect because the priority is to check the placement first. Clamping the NG tube (Choice B) or removing it (Choice C) without verifying the placement can be dangerous if the tube is dislodged. Thus, these actions should not be taken before confirming the tube's position.

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