NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet
1. After delivery, a newborn undergoes an Apgar assessment. What does this scoring system evaluate?
- A. heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, reflex irritability
- B. heart rate, bleeding, cyanosis, edema
- C. bleeding, reflex, edema
- D. respiratory effort, heart rate, seizures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Apgar scoring system, developed by Virginia Apgar, an anesthesiologist, evaluates newborns based on five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. These parameters provide a quick and simple assessment of a newborn's overall condition and the need for immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not encompass the essential elements evaluated by the Apgar scoring system.
2. When the nurse is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should she measure?
- A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
- B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
- C. tip of the chin to the sternum
- D. tip of the nose to the earlobe
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct! When sizing an oropharyngeal airway, the nurse should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to reach the pharynx without being too long or too short. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide the correct anatomical landmarks for determining the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear is a standard method to ensure proper airway size and prevent complications during airway management.
3. At what point in the nurse-client relationship should termination first be addressed?
- A. in the working phase
- B. in the termination phase
- C. in the orientation phase
- D. when the client initially brings up the topic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Termination in the nurse-client relationship should first be addressed in the orientation phase. This is because the client has a right to know the parameters of the relationship from the beginning. During the orientation phase, it is important to discuss if the relationship is time-limited, inform the client about the number of sessions, or explain that it is open-ended with the termination date to be negotiated later. Addressing termination in the orientation phase helps establish transparency and clear communication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because termination discussions should ideally start at the beginning of the relationship to set appropriate expectations.
4. A client scheduled for surgery tells the nurse that he signed an informed consent for the surgical procedure but was never told about the risks of the surgery. The nurse serves as the client's advocate by undertaking which action?
- A. Reassuring the client that the risks are minimal
- B. Noting in the client's record that the client was not told about the risks of the surgery
- C. Writing a note on the front of the client's record so that the surgeon will see it when the client arrives in the operating room
- D. Informing the surgeon verbally about the lack of information provided to the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A nurse serves as a client advocate by protecting the client's right to be informed and to participate in decisions regarding care. In this scenario, the nurse should document in the client's record that the client was not informed about the risks of the surgery. This action ensures that the issue is officially noted and can be addressed by the healthcare team. Reassuring the client that the risks are minimal is incorrect because it dismisses the client's concerns and does not address the lack of information provided. Writing a note on the client's chart to inform the surgeon is not as effective as ensuring that the issue is officially documented in the client's record, where it can be reviewed and addressed by the healthcare team. Informing the surgeon verbally is not as reliable as documenting the concern in the client's record, which provides a formal and lasting record for review and follow-up.
5. Which of the following enzymes is indicative of pancreatitis?
- A. alkaline phosphatase
- B. acid phosphatase
- C. creatine phosphokinase
- D. amylase
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Amylase is elevated in conditions of pancreatic inflammation, such as pancreatitis. Pancreatitis is characterized by the inflammation of the pancreas, leading to the leakage of amylase into the bloodstream. Elevated levels of amylase are a key diagnostic marker for pancreatitis. Alkaline phosphatase is associated with liver and bone conditions, not pancreatitis. Acid phosphatase is more related to prostate health and is not specific to pancreatitis. Creatine phosphokinase is found in tissues like muscle and brain, and elevated levels are seen in conditions like muscle injury or heart attack, not pancreatitis.
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