Nursing Elites

1. After delivery, a newborn undergoes an Apgar assessment. What does this scoring system evaluate?

• A. heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, reflex irritability
• B. heart rate, bleeding, cyanosis, edema
• C. bleeding, reflex, edema
• D. respiratory effort, heart rate, seizures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar scoring system, developed by Virginia Apgar, an anesthesiologist, evaluates newborns based on five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. These parameters provide a quick and simple assessment of a newborn's overall condition and the need for immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not encompass the essential elements evaluated by the Apgar scoring system.

2. What is a true statement about post-discharge follow-up?

• A. The nurse should ensure the client is educated on their discharge instructions.
• B. If the client seems stable, they likely do not need a follow-up visit.
• C. The physician is responsible for ensuring the client has their prescriptions upon discharge.
• D. If the client has questions, the nurse should address them before discharge.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is that the nurse should ensure the client is educated on their discharge instructions. This is crucial to promote continuity of care and prevent adverse events. The responsibility of educating the client falls on the nurse, not assuming stability without a follow-up visit. While the physician may prescribe medications, it is the nurse's responsibility to ensure the client has them before discharge. Instructing the client to bring up questions at a follow-up appointment is not ideal; all questions should be addressed before discharge to ensure the client's understanding and compliance.

3. Which of the following lab values is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease?

• A. high HDL cholesterol
• B. low HDL cholesterol
• C. low total cholesterol
• D. low triglycerides

Correct answer: B

Rationale: High HDL cholesterol is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease because HDL cholesterol is known as 'good' cholesterol. It helps remove other forms of cholesterol, like LDL cholesterol, from the bloodstream, reducing the risk of plaque buildup in the arteries. Low HDL cholesterol (Choice B) is actually a risk factor for cardiovascular disease because it means there is less of the 'good' cholesterol to perform its protective functions. Low total cholesterol (Choice C) and low triglycerides (Choice D) are not necessarily associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease, as the balance and types of cholesterol play a more crucial role in heart health.

4. In which situation is the nurse upholding the ethical principle of fidelity?

• A. Providing complete information regarding treatment options to a client with newly diagnosed cancer
• B. Allowing a client to decide when to receive daily hygiene care
• C. Inserting a 19-gauge intravenous catheter into a client requiring a blood transfusion
• D. Contacting the health care provider about the client's request to incorporate complementary therapies for pain into the treatment plan

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fidelity is the ethical principle of keeping promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Contacting the health care provider about the client's request to incorporate complementary therapies for pain into the treatment plan exemplifies fidelity. By advocating for the client's preferences and ensuring their requests are addressed, the nurse demonstrates a commitment to fulfilling promises made to the client. Allowing a client to decide when to receive daily hygiene care relates to respecting autonomy, not fidelity. Inserting a 19-gauge intravenous catheter into a client needing a blood transfusion aligns with beneficence, as it involves taking action to provide necessary treatment. Providing complete information to a client with newly diagnosed cancer about treatment options reflects justice, promoting fairness and equity in healthcare by offering equal access to information and treatment choices.

5. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should they measure?

• A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When selecting the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway, the healthcare provider should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to maintain a clear air passage for exchange. Measuring from the corner of the eye to the top of the ear (Choice B) is inaccurate and not a standard measurement for selecting the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the tip of the chin to the sternum (Choice C) is irrelevant to determining the correct size of the airway. Similarly, measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe (Choice D) is also incorrect and does not provide the necessary measurement for selecting an oropharyngeal airway size.

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