Nursing Elites

1. After delivery, a newborn undergoes an Apgar assessment. What does this scoring system evaluate?

• A. heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, reflex irritability
• B. heart rate, bleeding, cyanosis, edema
• C. bleeding, reflex, edema
• D. respiratory effort, heart rate, seizures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar scoring system, developed by Virginia Apgar, an anesthesiologist, evaluates newborns based on five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. These parameters provide a quick and simple assessment of a newborn's overall condition and the need for immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not encompass the essential elements evaluated by the Apgar scoring system.

2. A nurse who recently learned she is pregnant has just received client assignments for the day. Which client assignment should the nurse question as being inappropriate?

• A. A client with metastatic cancer who is receiving a continuous infusion of intravenous morphine sulfate
• B. A client with a solid-sealed cervical radiation implant
• C. A client with diarrhea for whom enteric precautions are in effect
• D. A client for whom contact precautions have been implemented and who requires frequent wound irrigations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with a solid-sealed cervical radiation implant. Brachytherapy involves the implantation of a sealed radiation source within the targeted tumor tissue. A client with such an implant emits radiation as long as it is in place. Pregnant nurses should not care for clients with solid-sealed radiation implants due to the potential radiation exposure risk to the fetus. Clients under enteric precautions due to diarrhea, receiving a continuous infusion of intravenous morphine sulfate for cancer pain, or requiring contact precautions and frequent wound irrigations do not pose a risk to pregnant nurses and are appropriate assignments for them. Therefore, the nurse should question the assignment involving the client with the solid-sealed cervical radiation implant as it poses a risk to the fetus.

3. Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?

• A. stunting of height in teens and young adults
• B. propensity for anovulatory uterine bleeding
• C. intractable diarrhea
• D. tendon rupture

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.

4. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

5. What is the 24-hour day-night cycle known as?

• A. circadian rhythm
• B. infradian rhythm
• C. ultradian rhythm
• D. non-REM rhythm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is circadian rhythm. Circadian rhythm refers to the rhythmic repetition of patterns that occur approximately every 24 hours, regulating various biological processes related to the day-night cycle. Infradian rhythm, which is longer than 24 hours, and ultradian rhythm, which is shorter than 24 hours, are not the correct terms for the 24-hour cycle. Non-REM rhythm does not specifically relate to the 24-hour day-night cycle, making it an incorrect choice.

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