Nursing Elites

1. After delivery, a newborn undergoes an Apgar assessment. What does this scoring system evaluate?

• A. heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, reflex irritability
• B. heart rate, bleeding, cyanosis, edema
• C. bleeding, reflex, edema
• D. respiratory effort, heart rate, seizures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar scoring system, developed by Virginia Apgar, an anesthesiologist, evaluates newborns based on five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. These parameters provide a quick and simple assessment of a newborn's overall condition and the need for immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not encompass the essential elements evaluated by the Apgar scoring system.

2. Pulling is easier than pushing. So pulling a client rather than pushing them has which of the following advantages?

• A. reduces workload
• B. decreases opposition from gravity
• C. maintains stability
• D. prevents muscle strain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When pulling a client, you work with the gravitational force instead of opposing it, which reduces the workload on your muscles. Choosing to pull a client minimizes the effort required compared to pushing. Choice B is incorrect because the force of gravity remains constant regardless of pushing or pulling. Choice C is irrelevant as stability is not directly related to the advantage of pulling over pushing. Choice D is inaccurate because pulling can still strain muscles if not executed correctly, but it generally reduces the overall workload in comparison to pushing.

3. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

4. The nurse manager of a quality improvement program asks a nurse in the neurological unit to conduct a retrospective audit. Which action should the auditing nurse plan to perform in this type of audit?

• A. Checking the crash cart to ensure that all needed supplies are readily available in case of an emergency
• B. Checking the documentation written by a new nursing graduate on her assigned clients at the end of the shift
• C. Reviewing neurological assessment checklists for all clients on the unit to ensure that these assessments are being conducted as prescribed
• D. Obtaining the assigned medical record from the hospital's medical record room to review documentation made during a client's hospital stay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, focuses on processes contributing to client safety and care outcomes. Retrospective audits involve reviewing medical records after discharge for compliance with standards. Concurrent audits assess staff compliance during a client's stay. Therefore, obtaining the medical record from the hospital's record room for review is crucial in a retrospective audit. Options A, B, and C are more suited for concurrent audits as they involve real-time assessment during a client's stay.

5. Which of the following foods present a problem for a client diagnosed with Celiac Disease?

• A. butter
• B. oats or barley cereal
• C. fresh vegetables
• D. coffee or tea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Celiac disease, also known as celiac sprue, is a malabsorption disorder affecting the small intestine due to a problem with ingesting gluten, a protein found in wheat, rye, oats, and barley. Therefore, oats or barley cereal would present a problem for a client with Celiac Disease as they contain gluten. Fresh vegetables, butter, coffee, and tea, on the other hand, do not contain gluten and should not pose any issues for individuals with this disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is oats or barley cereal. Choices A, C, and D are not problematic for clients with Celiac Disease as they are gluten-free.

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