a newborn has been delivered an apgar score is given what does this scoring system indicate
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. After delivery, a newborn undergoes an Apgar assessment. What does this scoring system evaluate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar scoring system, developed by Virginia Apgar, an anesthesiologist, evaluates newborns based on five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. These parameters provide a quick and simple assessment of a newborn's overall condition and the need for immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not encompass the essential elements evaluated by the Apgar scoring system.

2. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

3. Following abdominal surgery, a client has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. What is the purpose of this tube immediately after surgery?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to prevent accumulation of fluids and gas. Immediately after abdominal surgery, the NG tube is used to keep the stomach decompressed, preventing the accumulation of fluids and gas. This helps in maintaining decompression to prevent surgical-site disruption and fluid loss through vomiting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of the NG tube following abdominal surgery is to prevent complications related to fluid and gas build-up rather than simplifying medication administration, measuring input and output, or collecting specimens.

4. Which of the following scenarios are considered violations of HIPAA laws?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Scenarios B and C are considered violations of HIPAA laws. Looking up the medical information of a friend who is not in your care, even with permission, is a violation of HIPAA as the friend is not your patient. Checking on your spouse's medical record, even as a power of attorney, is a violation unless it is directly related to caregiving decisions. Discussing discharge plans with a client in a multi-bed recovery room with the curtain drawn around the client's bed is not a violation of HIPAA. This scenario is considered an 'incidental disclosure' and is not a breach of HIPAA privacy rules. Avoiding conversations about clients while in line in the cafeteria with a mutual caregiver of that client is actually a good practice as it maintains client confidentiality.

5. In a disaster triage situation, which of the following should the nurse be least concerned with regarding a client in crisis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a disaster triage situation where quick decisions are crucial, the nurse's primary focus should be on factors directly related to the patient's immediate condition and survival. The ability to breathe, pallor or cyanosis of the skin, and motor function are critical indicators of a patient's health status and need for urgent intervention. In contrast, the number of accompanying family members, although important for emotional support, is not a priority when assessing and prioritizing care during a crisis. While emotional support is valuable, the focus in triage is on identifying and addressing the most critical and life-threatening issues first to maximize survival chances. Therefore, the nurse should be least concerned with the number of accompanying family members as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate medical needs in a crisis situation. Choices A, B, and D are all crucial factors to assess a client's health status and determine the urgency of intervention during a disaster triage. The ability to breathe indicates respiratory function, pallor or cyanosis of the skin reflect circulatory and oxygenation status, and motor function can hint at neurological impairment or injury, all of which are vital in determining the severity of the crisis and the immediate medical needs of the patient.

Similar Questions

A 51-year-old client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig disease) is admitted to the hospital because his condition is deteriorating. The client tells the nurse that he wants a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The nurse should provide the client with which information?
A nurse monitoring a client with a chest tube notes that there is no tidaling of fluid in the water seal chamber. After further assessment, the nurse suspects that the client's lung has reexpanded and notifies the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider verifies with the use of a chest x-ray that the lung has reexpanded, then calls the nurse to ask that the chest tube be removed. Which action should the nurse take first?
The nurse is teaching a client about erythema infectiosum. Which of the following factors is not correct?
Following a classic cholecystectomy resection for multiple stones, the PACU nurse observes serosanguinous drainage on the dressing. The most appropriate intervention is to:
Signs of internal bleeding include all of the following except:

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses