Nursing Elites

1. After delivery, a newborn undergoes an Apgar assessment. What does this scoring system evaluate?

• A. heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, reflex irritability
• B. heart rate, bleeding, cyanosis, edema
• C. bleeding, reflex, edema
• D. respiratory effort, heart rate, seizures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar scoring system, developed by Virginia Apgar, an anesthesiologist, evaluates newborns based on five criteria: heart rate, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. These parameters provide a quick and simple assessment of a newborn's overall condition and the need for immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not encompass the essential elements evaluated by the Apgar scoring system.

2. A nurse is reviewing the notes written by a nurse on a previous shift. Which note in the client's record reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation?

• A. The client's wound is healing well.
• B. The client seems anxious.
• C. The client's intake was 360 mL
• D. The client is voiding large amounts

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quality documentation and reporting require information to be factual, accurate, complete, current, and organized. Choice C, 'The client's intake was 360 mL,' reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation as it provides a specific and measurable observation. This note meets the criteria for quality documentation by being specific and quantifiable. Choices A, B, and D lack specificity and quantifiability. Choice A includes a subjective term 'well,' choice B uses 'seems' indicating uncertainty, and choice D uses a vague term 'large' without quantifying the amount.

3. When are standard walkers typically used?

• A. When clients have poor balance, cannot stand up, have weak arms, and good hand strength.
• B. When clients have poor balance, have a broken leg, or have experienced amputation.
• C. When clients have poor balance, have cardiac problems, or cannot use crutches or a cane.
• D. When clients have poor balance, have an autoimmune disease, or have weak arms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Standard walkers are typically used for clients who have poor balance, cardiac problems, or those who cannot use crutches or a cane. The rationale is correct in stating that a walker is suitable for individuals needing to bear partial weight and having strength in their wrists and arms to propel the walker forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the main reasons why standard walkers are used in clinical practice. Using a walker is not solely about having weak arms, good hand strength, a broken leg, experienced amputation, or an autoimmune disease. The primary focus is on addressing balance issues, cardiac problems, or the inability to use crutches or a cane effectively.

4. The LPN is auscultating for bowel sounds and hears between 3 and 4 bowel sounds per minute. This is a somewhat expected finding for which of these clients?

• A. a 63-year-old female undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer
• B. a 56-year-old female with dementia undergoing a swallow study
• C. a 34-year-old male with a PEG tube newly admitted for diabetic ketoacidosis
• D. a 45-year-old male recovering from a knee replacement under general anesthesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When recovering from general anesthesia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be expected due to the effects of the anesthesia on gut motility. For the other clients, hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would indicate an abnormal finding. In the context of the given situation, the client recovering from knee replacement surgery aligns with the expected range of bowel sounds post-general anesthesia. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C present scenarios where hearing less than 5 bowel sounds per minute would be abnormal, indicating potential issues that need further evaluation.

5. The client is being taught about the use of Rifampin for prophylaxis following exposure to meningitis. What change in bodily functions should the client be informed about?

• A. The client's urine may turn blue.
• B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
• C. The client's contact lenses may be stained orange.
• D. The client's skin may take on a crimson glow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained. Clients should be taught about these side effects to avoid unnecessary concern. Option A is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the urine to turn blue. Option B is incorrect as the client is not infectious to others due to taking Rifampin for prophylaxis. Option D is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the skin to take on a crimson glow.

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