an 80 year old aphasic cva client had abdominal surgery 2 days ago which of the following puts this client at the highest risk for inadequate pain man
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions

1. An 80-year-old aphasic CVA client had abdominal surgery 2 days ago. Which of the following puts this client at the highest risk for inadequate pain management?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inability to communicate pain. In this scenario, the client's aphasia prevents them from verbally expressing their pain, which can lead to inadequate pain management if the healthcare team is not vigilant. The nurse must use alternative methods to assess and address the client's pain. Choices A, C, and D, although important considerations in postoperative care, do not directly relate to the client's ability to communicate pain, which is crucial for effective pain management in this case.

2. A nurse in a long-term care center notes that an employee is constantly calling in sick. Which action should the nurse take initially to handle this problem?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an employee demonstrates excessive absenteeism, the initial action a nurse should take is to discuss the situation with the employee and remind them of the agency's employment standards. It is important to communicate openly with the employee to understand the reasons for their frequent absences and remind them of the expectations regarding attendance. This approach allows for a constructive dialogue and provides the employee with an opportunity to rectify their behavior. Documenting the employee's absences in the personnel file may be necessary if the issue persists despite the discussion. Reporting the employee to administration should be considered only if the employee fails to improve after the initial discussion. Issuing a written warning should be a subsequent step if the employee continues to violate the attendance policies even after reminders and discussions.

3. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with a tracheostomy who is receiving humidified oxygen via a tracheostomy mask. Airway management is always the priority in nursing care. Assessing this client first ensures that their airway is clear and oxygenation is adequate. Clients with compromised airways need immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress or failure. The other clients do not have immediate airway concerns and represent lower priorities in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client with the tracheostomy and oxygen therapy to maintain airway patency and adequate oxygenation.

4. What is the 24-hour day-night cycle known as?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is circadian rhythm. Circadian rhythm refers to the rhythmic repetition of patterns that occur approximately every 24 hours, regulating various biological processes related to the day-night cycle. Infradian rhythm, which is longer than 24 hours, and ultradian rhythm, which is shorter than 24 hours, are not the correct terms for the 24-hour cycle. Non-REM rhythm does not specifically relate to the 24-hour day-night cycle, making it an incorrect choice.

5. What is the most effective way to prevent skin breakdown?

Correct answer: V

Rationale: Repositioning is the most effective way to prevent skin breakdown. Repositioning helps relieve pressure on specific areas of the skin, reducing the risk of developing pressure ulcers. While assistive devices (Choice A) may be beneficial in some cases, they are not universally as effective as repositioning. Topical medications (Choice C) are primarily used for treating skin conditions and are not the primary focus for preventing skin breakdown. Avoiding tape and bandages (Choice D) is crucial to prevent skin irritation, but repositioning remains the most effective method to prevent skin breakdown.

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