Nursing Elites

1. An 80-year-old aphasic CVA client had abdominal surgery 2 days ago. Which of the following puts this client at the highest risk for inadequate pain management?

• A. Inability to turn, cough, and breathe deeply
• B. Inability to communicate pain
• C. Inability to ambulate freely
• D. Inability to use a bedside commode

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inability to communicate pain. In this scenario, the client's aphasia prevents them from verbally expressing their pain, which can lead to inadequate pain management if the healthcare team is not vigilant. The nurse must use alternative methods to assess and address the client's pain. Choices A, C, and D, although important considerations in postoperative care, do not directly relate to the client's ability to communicate pain, which is crucial for effective pain management in this case.

2. While caring for the following clients, a pediatric nurse tells the charge nurse she must leave due to a family emergency. Which client would the charge nurse reassign to an LPN?

• A. An eight-year-old in diabetic ketoacidosis
• B. A six-year-old in sickle cell crisis
• C. A two-month-old with dehydration
• D. A five-year-old in skeletal traction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a five-year-old in skeletal traction. This task is within the scope of practice for an LPN and would need minimal assistance from an RN. The children with diabetic ketoacidosis, sickle cell crisis, and dehydration require close observation, good assessment skills, IVF needs, and medications that would be better managed by an RN. Reassigning the child in skeletal traction to an LPN ensures appropriate care while allowing the RN to focus on the more critical cases.

3. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?

• A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
• B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
• C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
• D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, which typically presents with maculopapular lesions around the mouth with honey-colored drainage, worsening with scratching. It is important to advise the caregiver that the history and presentation are indicative of impetigo, an infectious skin condition caused by bacteria. Treatment usually involves antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because chickenpox typically presents with a vesicular rash following a history of high fever. Choice B is incorrect as impetigo is contagious and requires precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Choice D is incorrect as impetigo is contagious irrespective of open wounds or lesions in others.

4. All of the following interventions should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:

• A. Increase maternal fluids.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Decrease maternal fluids.
• D. Turn the mother.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress, interventions are aimed at improving oxygenation to the fetus. Increasing maternal fluids helps improve placental perfusion and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Administering oxygen also aids in increasing oxygen supply to the fetus. Turning the mother can help relieve pressure on the vena cava, optimizing blood flow to the placenta. Therefore, decreasing maternal fluids would not be performed as it can further compromise placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation, making it the exception. Decreasing maternal fluids could potentially exacerbate fetal distress by reducing oxygen delivery and nutrient supply to the fetus, which is contrary to the goal of managing fetal distress.

5. What are the hazards of improper splinting?

• A. Aggravation of a bone or joint injury
• B. Reduced distal circulation
• C. Delay in transporting a client with a life-threatening injury
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hazards of improper splinting can lead to the aggravation of a bone or joint injury, reduced distal circulation, and delay in transporting a client with a life-threatening injury. Choosing 'All of the above' (Option D) is the correct answer as it encompasses all the hazards mentioned. Option A is incorrect because it only addresses one aspect of the hazards. Option B is incorrect as it does not cover all the hazards associated with improper splinting. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on only one hazard and does not account for the others.

Similar Questions