Nursing Elites

1. A client with leukemia is being considered for a bone marrow transplant. The healthcare team is discussing the risks and benefits of this treatment and other possible treatments with the goal of inflicting the least possible harm on the client. Which principle of healthcare ethics is the team practicing?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Autonomy
• D. Justice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the principle of avoiding harm. In healthcare ethics, practitioners aim not only to do good but also to ensure they do no harm. In this scenario, the healthcare team is discussing treatment options with the intention of inflicting the least harm on the client. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to keeping promises made to clients, families, and healthcare professionals. Choice C, Autonomy, pertains to respecting a person's independence and right to make decisions. Choice D, Justice, involves fairness, equity, and the fair allocation of resources, such as healthcare services.

2. Which of the following statements by a client indicates adequate preparation for magnetic resonance imaging?

• A. "I should wear earplugs during the test."?
• B. "I should remove my metal jewelry before the test."?
• C. "I should inform the healthcare provider about my pacemaker."?
• D. "I should inform the healthcare provider about my artificial hip."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is, '"I should wear earplugs during the test,"?' as MRI scanners produce loud noises requiring ear protection. Metal objects, including jewelry, are not allowed inside the MRI room due to safety concerns related to the magnetic field. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is wrong because metal objects, including jewelry, are not permitted in the MRI room. Choices C and D are incorrect as having a pacemaker or an artificial hip raises concerns due to the magnetic field in MRI, requiring special precautions or considerations. It is crucial for individuals with such implants to inform their healthcare provider to assess the risks and determine the appropriate course of action.

3. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should they measure?

• A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When selecting the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway, the healthcare provider should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to maintain a clear air passage for exchange. Measuring from the corner of the eye to the top of the ear (Choice B) is inaccurate and not a standard measurement for selecting the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the tip of the chin to the sternum (Choice C) is irrelevant to determining the correct size of the airway. Similarly, measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe (Choice D) is also incorrect and does not provide the necessary measurement for selecting an oropharyngeal airway size.

4. When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?

• A. 2 liters/minute
• B. 4 liters/minute
• C. 6 liters/minute
• D. 8 liters/minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 6 liters/minute. When a client requires oxygen therapy, the maximum flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula is 6 liters/minute. Nasal cannula can effectively deliver oxygen up to 6 liters/minute. Flow rates exceeding 6 liters/minute may lead to drying of the nasal passages and discomfort for the client. Higher flow rates, like 8 liters/minute, should be administered using a mask to ensure sufficient oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they indicate flow rates that surpass the recommended maximum for nasal cannula delivery.

5. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

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