Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client via a nasogastric (NG) tube. Before administering the medication, the nurse must first take which action?

• A. Check the client's apical pulse
• B. Check when the last feeding was given
• C. Check the placement of the tube
• D. Check when the last medications were given

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before administering medications through an NG tube, the nurse must first check the placement of the tube to prevent aspiration. This is done by aspirating gastric contents and measuring the pH. Checking the client's apical pulse is unrelated to NG tube medication administration. Checking when the last feeding was given is important but not a priority before administering medications. Checking when the last medications were given is also not directly related to ensuring the safe administration of medications through an NG tube. Ensuring the correct placement of the tube is crucial to prevent complications such as pulmonary aspiration.

2. The client is unsure about making medical decisions as their disease progresses and wants to appoint someone to make these decisions. Which of the following options would be most appropriate?

• A. a living will
• B. informed consent
• C. a healthcare proxy
• D. non-informed consent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a healthcare proxy.' A healthcare proxy involves the client appointing an individual to make medical decisions on their behalf if they become unable to do so. This option allows the client to choose someone they trust to act in their best interests. Choice A, 'a living will,' is a legal document that outlines a person's wishes regarding medical treatment in case they are unable to communicate their decisions. While it is important, it does not involve appointing someone to make decisions. Choice B, 'informed consent,' is a process where a healthcare provider explains a treatment or procedure, including its risks and benefits, to a patient who can then decide whether to proceed. This is not about appointing someone to make decisions on the patient's behalf. Choice D, 'non-informed consent,' is not a valid concept in healthcare. Informed consent is crucial for respecting a patient's autonomy and decision-making capacity.

3. A graduate nurse hired to work in a medical unit of a hospital is attending an orientation session. The nurse educator, discussing care maps, asks the graduate nurse whether she understands how a care map is used. Which response indicates understanding?

• A. The care map outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge
• B. The care map is a plan that is used only by the nurse to provide client care
• C. The care map is a standard plan, rather than an individualized one, that is developed strictly by a nurse and used for a client with a particular diagnosis
• D. The care map is developed by a nurse and identifies nursing diagnoses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A care map, also known as a critical pathway, outlines the day-to-day expected outcomes of care and the outcomes anticipated at discharge or the end of a treatment phase. It includes clinical assessments, treatments, dietary interventions, activity therapies, client education, and discharge planning. While it may identify nursing diagnoses, a care map is developed by all disciplines caring for the client type and is used by the interdisciplinary team, not just the nurse alone. Choice B is incorrect because a care map is not solely for the nurse but for the entire interdisciplinary team. Choice C is incorrect as care maps are individualized plans developed by the interdisciplinary team, not just by a nurse. Choice D is incorrect as a care map is not solely about nursing diagnoses but encompasses a comprehensive plan of care.

4. While receiving an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained of itchy skin. The nurse observed warm, flushed skin with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was promptly notified.

• A. The client is apparently allergic to cefazolin sodium, as indicated by warm, flushed skin and a rash on the arms, chest, and back.
• B. The client had an allergy to cefazolin sodium.
• C. The health care provider was notified because a rash developed while the client was receiving cefazolin sodium.
• D. During an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained that his skin was itchy. The client's skin was warm and flushed, with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was notified.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate and objective documentation is essential during an incident report. Choice A makes an assumption of allergy based on subjective interpretation, which is not appropriate. Choice B states a conclusion without proper documentation. Choice C is incomplete as it fails to provide a detailed account of the observed symptoms. Choice D offers a precise description of the client's symptoms, actions taken, and notification of the healthcare provider, making it the most suitable documentation choice.

5. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

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