NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet
1. The client is preparing to learn about the effects of isoniazid (INH). Which information is essential for the client to understand?
- A. Isoniazid should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- B. Prolonged use of isoniazid may result in dark, concentrated urine.
- C. Taking aluminum hydroxide (Maalox) with isoniazid can enhance the drug's effects.
- D. Consuming alcohol daily can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: It is crucial for the client to understand that consuming alcohol while on isoniazid can increase the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Hepatic damage can lead to dark, concentrated urine. To minimize gastrointestinal upset, it is recommended to take isoniazid with meals rather than on an empty stomach. Additionally, the client should avoid taking aluminum-containing antacids like aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid, as it can reduce the drug's effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because isoniazid should not be taken on an empty stomach to help reduce GI upset. Choice B is incorrect, as prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark, concentrated urine. Choice C is incorrect as taking aluminum hydroxide with isoniazid does not enhance the drug's effects; in fact, it may decrease its effectiveness.
2. What is most important for the healthcare professional to do prior to initiating peritoneal dialysis?
- A. Aspirate to check placement
- B. Ensure the client voids
- C. Irrigate the catheter to maintain patency
- D. Warm the fluids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to warm the fluids. Warming the dialysis fluids is crucial before initiating peritoneal dialysis to prevent abdominal discomfort and promote vasodilation, which helps in achieving good exchange in the peritoneum. Aspirating to check placement (Choice A) is not typically necessary before initiating peritoneal dialysis. Ensuring the client voids (Choice B) is not directly related to the procedure of peritoneal dialysis. Irrigating the catheter to maintain patency (Choice C) is usually done as part of routine care but is not specifically required prior to initiating peritoneal dialysis. Therefore, the most important action to take before starting peritoneal dialysis is to warm the fluids.
3. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
- A. increased platelet count
- B. increased fibrinogen
- C. decreased fibrin split products
- D. decreased bleeding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.
4. A person who had a left CVA and right lower extremity hemiparesis is being instructed by a nurse to use a quad cane. Which of the following is the most appropriate gait sequence?
- A. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
- B. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.
- C. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
- D. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct gait sequence for a person with left CVA and right lower extremity hemiparesis using a quad cane is to place the cane in the patient's strong upper extremity, which is the left upper extremity in this case. The correct sequence should be right lower extremity followed by left upper extremity, as this pattern mimics a normal gait pattern. Therefore, Choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the proper gait sequence for this specific patient's condition. The cane should be placed in the strong upper extremity, and the affected lower extremity should move first to provide stability and support, which is essential in this situation.
5. A 20-year-old obese female client is preparing to have gastric bypass surgery for weight loss. She says to the nurse, "I need this surgery because nothing else I have done has helped me to lose weight."? Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. "If you eat less, you can save some money."?
- B. "Exercise is a healthier way to lose weight."?
- C. "You should try the Atkins diet first."?
- D. "I respect your decision to choose surgery."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is to show respect and empathy towards the client's decision. Option D acknowledges the client's autonomy and decision-making process, fostering a therapeutic relationship. Options A, B, and C are insensitive and unprofessional. Option A implies a financial incentive for weight loss, which can be perceived as disrespectful and trivializing the client's concerns. Option B suggests an alternative method without considering the client's reasons for choosing surgery, potentially invalidating her experiences. Option C recommends a specific diet without addressing the client's concerns or choices, neglecting her autonomy in decision-making.
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