Nursing Elites

1. When discussing the child's wishes for future care, it is important for the nurse to first identify what the child knows about the disease and his prognosis. Factors such as the perceived severity of the illness will be significant in planning for end-of-life care. If the child does not understand the disease process or prognosis, the plan of care would not be effective or realistic. In addition, asking a child about desired interventions in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest would not be an appropriate initial area of questioning. If the child does not understand the disease process, these questions may seem frightening or threatening. While exploring the child's belief about death would be important, it would not be the initial area of discussion and should be guided by the child rather than the nurse.

• A. What the child knows about the disease and his prognosis.
• B. How the child would like to handle the plan of care.
• C. What interventions the child would like in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest.
• D. What the child believes about death.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When discussing the child's wishes for future care, it is essential to first determine what the child understands about the disease and his prognosis. This information is crucial for planning appropriate end-of-life care. If the child lacks comprehension of the illness and its prognosis, any care plan discussed would be ineffective and unrealistic. Inquiring about desired interventions during cardiac or respiratory arrest is not the initial step, as it may cause distress if the child lacks understanding. While exploring the child's beliefs about death is significant, it should not be the primary focus initially and should be approached based on the child's readiness, not the nurse's agenda. Therefore, the correct first step is to assess what the child knows about the disease and his prognosis.

2. When assessing a client with early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness and which of the following symptoms?

• A. cool, clammy skin
• B. bradycardia
• C. tachycardia
• D. eupnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client has early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as in a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and cool skin. Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen delivery to tissues. Cool, clammy skin (choice A) is more indicative of impaired oxygen perfusion compared to warm, dry skin. Bradycardia (choice B) is less likely to occur in the early stages and is more common in severe cases. Eupnea (choice D) refers to normal respirations in rate and depth, which may not be altered in early impairment of oxygen perfusion.

3. Support systems during the grieving process include all of the following except:

• A. a despondent friend.
• B. a nurse.
• C. a social worker.
• D. a family member.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the grieving process, it is essential to have a support system in place. Options B, C, and D - a nurse, a social worker, and a family member, respectively, are individuals who can provide comfort, guidance, and practical assistance to someone who is grieving. However, a despondent friend, as stated in the question, is not an ideal choice for support during this period. A despondent friend is someone who is feeling extremely unhappy and discouraged, and may not have the emotional capacity to provide the needed support to a grieving individual. It is important for someone who is grieving to have support from individuals who can offer understanding, empathy, and strength, which a despondent friend may struggle to provide.

4. For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?

• A. Headache
• B. Pruritus
• C. Vomiting
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.

5. Which of the following terms refers to soft tissue injury caused by blunt force?

• A. contusion
• B. strain
• C. sprain
• D. dislocation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A contusion is a soft tissue injury caused by blunt force. It is an injury that does not break the skin, caused by a blow, and characterized by swelling, discoloration, and pain. The immediate application of cold might limit the development of a contusion. A strain is a muscle pull from overuse, overstretching, or excessive stress. A sprain is caused by a wrenching or twisting motion. A dislocation is a condition where the articular surfaces of the bones forming a joint are no longer in anatomical contact. Therefore, the correct answer is 'contusion' as it specifically relates to soft tissue injury caused by blunt force.

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