Nursing Elites

1. When discussing the child's wishes for future care, it is important for the nurse to first identify what the child knows about the disease and his prognosis. Factors such as the perceived severity of the illness will be significant in planning for end-of-life care. If the child does not understand the disease process or prognosis, the plan of care would not be effective or realistic. In addition, asking a child about desired interventions in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest would not be an appropriate initial area of questioning. If the child does not understand the disease process, these questions may seem frightening or threatening. While exploring the child's belief about death would be important, it would not be the initial area of discussion and should be guided by the child rather than the nurse.

• A. What the child knows about the disease and his prognosis.
• B. How the child would like to handle the plan of care.
• C. What interventions the child would like in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest.
• D. What the child believes about death.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When discussing the child's wishes for future care, it is essential to first determine what the child understands about the disease and his prognosis. This information is crucial for planning appropriate end-of-life care. If the child lacks comprehension of the illness and its prognosis, any care plan discussed would be ineffective and unrealistic. Inquiring about desired interventions during cardiac or respiratory arrest is not the initial step, as it may cause distress if the child lacks understanding. While exploring the child's beliefs about death is significant, it should not be the primary focus initially and should be approached based on the child's readiness, not the nurse's agenda. Therefore, the correct first step is to assess what the child knows about the disease and his prognosis.

2. The newborn nursery is filled to capacity. Which newborn should the nurse assess first?

• A. A three-hour-old just waking up after a period of sleep
• B. A two-day-old crying loudly
• C. A three-day-old two hours after circumcision
• D. A one-hour-old sucking his fist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical time for assessment in a newborn is during the second period of reactivity, which occurs approximately 3-5 hours after delivery. During this phase, newborns are more likely to gag on mucus and aspirate, making it crucial for the nurse to assess their respiratory status first. Choice A indicates a newborn in this critical phase, requiring immediate assessment for potential airway compromise or respiratory distress. Choices B, C, and D do not present an immediate need for assessment related to airway compromise or respiratory distress.

3. Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?

• A. metoclopramide (Reglan)
• B. ondansetron (Zofran)
• C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
• D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Zofran is a serotonin antagonist that can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron (Zofran) works by blocking serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) and the gastrointestinal tract. This action helps reduce nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide (Reglan) works as a dopamine antagonist and also has prokinetic effects, making it effective for different conditions. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but it does not act as a serotonin antagonist. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) is a dopamine antagonist that is also used to treat nausea and vomiting, but not as a serotonin antagonist like ondansetron.

4. What should the nurse do while caring for a client with an eating disorder?

• A. Encourage the client to cook for others
• B. Weigh the client daily and keep a journal
• C. Restrict access to mirrors
• D. Monitor food intake and behavior for one hour after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor food intake and behavior for one hour after meals. This is crucial in caring for a client with an eating disorder as it helps in assessing any immediate risks related to the disorder. Option A is incorrect as it may trigger additional stress for the client and distract from the main focus of managing the disorder. Option B, weighing the client daily, could lead to an unhealthy focus on weight and potentially worsen the client's mental health. Option C, restricting access to mirrors, although it may be beneficial for body image concerns, does not directly address the core issue of monitoring food intake and behavior, which is essential in managing eating disorders.

5. Which of the following blood pressure parameters indicates PIH? Elevation over a baseline of:

• A. 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic.
• B. 40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.
• C. 10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic.
• D. 20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic. These parameters indicate mild PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension). Mild preeclampsia is characterized by an increase in systolic blood pressure greater than 30 mmHg or an increase in diastolic blood pressure greater than 15 mmHg, observed on two readings taken 6 hours apart (or reaching 140/90). Choice B (40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) represents a more significant elevation and would indicate a more severe condition than mild PIH. Choices C (10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic) and D (20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) do not meet the criteria for indicating PIH as they are below the accepted parameters for mild PIH.

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