NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN 2023 Quizlet
1. When discussing the child's wishes for future care, it is important for the nurse to first identify what the child knows about the disease and his prognosis. Factors such as the perceived severity of the illness will be significant in planning for end-of-life care. If the child does not understand the disease process or prognosis, the plan of care would not be effective or realistic. In addition, asking a child about desired interventions in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest would not be an appropriate initial area of questioning. If the child does not understand the disease process, these questions may seem frightening or threatening. While exploring the child's belief about death would be important, it would not be the initial area of discussion and should be guided by the child rather than the nurse.
- A. What the child knows about the disease and his prognosis.
- B. How the child would like to handle the plan of care.
- C. What interventions the child would like in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest.
- D. What the child believes about death.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When discussing the child's wishes for future care, it is essential to first determine what the child understands about the disease and his prognosis. This information is crucial for planning appropriate end-of-life care. If the child lacks comprehension of the illness and its prognosis, any care plan discussed would be ineffective and unrealistic. Inquiring about desired interventions during cardiac or respiratory arrest is not the initial step, as it may cause distress if the child lacks understanding. While exploring the child's beliefs about death is significant, it should not be the primary focus initially and should be approached based on the child's readiness, not the nurse's agenda. Therefore, the correct first step is to assess what the child knows about the disease and his prognosis.
2. The death of a beloved spouse places the surviving partner in which type of crisis?
- A. maturational
- B. reactive
- C. nonreactive
- D. situational
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'situational.' A situational crisis is an unexpected, unplanned event, such as the death of a spouse, which can lead to significant distress. Option A is incorrect because a maturational crisis is related to normal life transitions like getting married or retiring. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not represent recognized crisis states in the context of the scenario provided.
3. Which is an example of a sentinel event?
- A. The terminally ill client is referred to hospice and dies 3 months later.
- B. A client receives an unordered mammogram which reveals a small cyst.
- C. A client with a laceration to the knee requiring 4 sutures falls when getting up unassisted after being instructed to remain in bed.
- D. A client scheduled for knee replacement surgery had an above-the-knee amputation performed.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Yes! A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence causing death or serious injury. In this case, a client who was scheduled for knee replacement surgery but had an above-the-knee amputation performed instead represents a sentinel event as it resulted in serious harm that was not intended. The other choices do not meet the criteria for a sentinel event. Choice A describes a natural progression for a terminally ill client, choice B shows an incidental finding from a test, and choice C involves a preventable fall leading to an injury but not a sentinel event.
4. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
- A. increased platelet count
- B. increased fibrinogen
- C. decreased fibrin split products
- D. decreased bleeding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.
5. A nurse at an outpatient clinic is returning phone calls that have been made to the clinic. Which of the following calls should have the highest priority for medical intervention?
- A. A home health patient reports, "I am starting to have a breakdown of my heels."?
- B. A patient that received an upper extremity cast yesterday reports, "I can't feel my fingers in my right hand today."?
- C. A young female reports, 'I think I sprained my ankle about 2 weeks ago.'
- D. A middle-aged patient reports, 'My knee is still hurting from the TKR.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the patient who received an upper extremity cast yesterday and reports not being able to feel their fingers in the right hand. This situation indicates a potential neurovascular issue that requires immediate attention to prevent complications. The other options are of lesser priority: A - Breakdown of the heels, while concerning, is not an acute issue that necessitates immediate intervention. C - An ankle sprain that occurred two weeks ago is now subacute and unlikely to be an urgent medical concern. D - Pain in the knee following a total knee replacement (TKR) is common in the early postoperative period and is not unexpected.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access