Nursing Elites

1. The greatest time savers when planning client care include all of the following except:

• A. reacting to the crisis of the moment
• B. setting goals
• C. planning
• D. specifying priorities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The greatest time-savers when planning client care are activities that facilitate focus and completion of priority items. Time-savers include setting goals, specifying priorities, planning tasks, delegating where appropriate, reassessment, and ongoing evaluation of needs. Reacting to the crisis of the moment is not a time-saving strategy in client care planning; it can lead to inefficiency, lack of focus, and potentially missing important priority items. Therefore, the correct answer is 'reacting to the crisis of the moment.' Choices B, C, and D are essential components for effective client care planning as they help in organizing and prioritizing tasks, setting objectives, and ensuring a structured approach to care delivery.

2. During data collection of a client with suspected carpal tunnel syndrome, a nurse plans to perform the Phalen test. The nurse should ask the client to perform which activity?

• A. Dorsiflex the foot
• B. Plantarflex the foot
• C. Hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees for 60 seconds
• D. Hyperextend the fingers with the palmar surfaces of the hands touching, holding the position for 60 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the Phalen test, the nurse asks the client to hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees. This position puts pressure on the median nerve, eliciting symptoms in carpal tunnel syndrome. Dorsiflexing or plantarflexing the foot and hyperextending the fingers are not associated with testing for carpal tunnel syndrome. Acute flexion of the wrist for 60 seconds produces no symptoms in the normal hand.

3. A client describes her cervical mucus as clear, thin, and elastic. Upon examination, the nurse demonstrates that the cervical mucus can be stretched 8-10 cm. The nurse correctly documents the finding as:

• A. increased ferning capacity.
• B. lack of ferning.
• C. spinnbarkheit.
• D. inhospitable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should document the finding as 'spinnbarkheit.' Spinnbarkheit is the term used to describe the clear, thin, and elastic cervical mucus that can be stretched 8-10 cm, indicating ovulation. It helps couples determine the most fertile period for conception. Ferning capacity or crystallization increases as ovulation approaches, but it requires microscopic examination to be confirmed. Lack of ferning cannot be determined without such examination. 'Inhospitable' cervical mucus refers to patterns that prohibit sperm motility, caused by various factors like hormone levels or infection. These conditions cannot be assessed based solely on the description provided in the question.

4. Which of the following statements is correct about Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

• A. There are psychosocial interventions that may be applicable to all of the levels.
• B. There are physical interventions that may be applicable to all of the levels.
• C. Two of the levels may require physical intervention while four of the levels may require psychosocial intervention.
• D. Four of the levels may require physical intervention, while two of the levels may require psychosocial intervention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement about Maslow's hierarchy of needs is that two of the levels may require physical intervention while four of the levels may require psychosocial intervention. Maslow's theory suggests that physiological and safety needs are more basic and may require physical interventions, while social, esteem, and self-actualization needs are more psychosocial. Choices A and B are incorrect as they wrongly suggest that all levels may require only one type of intervention. Choice D is incorrect because it inaccurately represents the balance of physical and psychosocial interventions in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

5. When testing the function of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, which parameter does a nurse check to determine their function?

• A. Tongue symmetry
• B. Eye movements
• C. Facial symmetry
• D. Corneal reflex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eye movements. When assessing the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, evaluating eye movements is crucial. This assessment includes checking the pupils for size, regularity, equality, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements in various gaze positions. Tongue symmetry is primarily used to evaluate cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve) function. Facial symmetry is a key indicator of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function. The corneal reflex assesses sensory afferents in cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) and motor efferents in cranial nerve VII (facial nerve).

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