Nursing Elites

1. While assisting with data collection, the nurse asks the client to close their jaws tightly. Subsequently, the nurse tries to open the closed jaws. In this technique, the nurse is assessing the motor function of which nerve?

• A. Trochlear nerve
• B. Abducens nerve
• C. Trigeminal nerve
• D. Oculomotor nerve

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trigeminal nerve. To test the motor function of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V), the nurse assesses the muscles of mastication by asking the client to clench their teeth. By trying to separate the client's jaws, the nurse evaluates the strength of the temporal and masseter muscles innervated by the trigeminal nerve. This technique helps assess if the trigeminal nerve is functioning properly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they relate to other cranial nerves that are not involved in the specific motor function being tested in this scenario. These nerves are usually assessed through different examinations such as assessing the pupils and extraocular movements, which are not part of the jaw clenching and opening technique described in the question.

2. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' If an 11-12-month-old child is unable to pull to a standing position, it can indicate a risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By 15 months of age, children should be walking, so delayed standing can be a red flag. The Trendelenburg sign is associated with gluteus medius muscle weakness, not hip dysplasia, making choice C incorrect. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital hip subluxation or dislocation, not developmental dysplasia, making choice D incorrect.

3. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?

• A. nausea and vomiting
• B. itching
• C. urinary retention
• D. somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.

4. A nurse palpates a client’s radial pulse, noting the rate, rhythm, and force, and concludes that the client’s pulse is normal. Which notation would the nurse make in the client’s record to document the force of the client’s pulse?

• A. 4+
• B. 3+
• C. 2+
• D. 1+

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a pulse, the nurse should note the rhythm, amplitude, and symmetry of pulses and should compare peripheral pulses on the two sides for rate, rhythm, and quality. A 4-point scale may be used to assess the force (amplitude) of the pulse: 4+ for a bounding pulse, 3+ for an increased pulse, 2+ for a normal pulse, and 1+ for a weak pulse. In this case, the nurse would grade the client’s pulse as 2+ based on the description of a normal pulse. Therefore, the correct notation for the force of the client’s pulse is '2+' as it indicates a normal pulse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent different levels of pulse force that do not align with the description given in the scenario.

5. A nurse is preparing to screen a client's vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?

• A. Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both eyes together
• B. Assesses both eyes together, then assesses the right and left eyes separately
• C. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the largest line on the chart
• D. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the line that can be read 200 feet away by someone with unimpaired vision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client's eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.

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