NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. A nurse reviewing the physical assessment findings in a client's health care record notes documentation that the Phalen test caused numbness and burning. Which disorder does the nurse, on the basis of this finding, conclude that the client has?
- A. Scoliosis
- B. Bone deformity
- C. Heberden nodules
- D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The Phalen test is specifically used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. In this test, the client is asked to hold their hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees, which can reproduce the numbness and burning sensation experienced by individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, not related to the Phalen test. Bone deformity is a general term that does not specifically relate to the symptoms described. Heberden nodules are bony swellings that occur in osteoarthritis and are not assessed through the Phalen test.
2. A 65-year-old female client is experiencing postmenopausal bleeding. Which type of physician should this client be encouraged to see?
- A. a radiologist
- B. a gynecologist
- C. a physiatrist
- D. an oncologist
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A 65-year-old female experiencing postmenopausal bleeding should be encouraged to see a gynecologist. Gynecologists specialize in treating and managing diseases of the female reproductive organs, making them the most appropriate physician for this issue. Postmenopausal bleeding can indicate various gynecological conditions such as endometrial atrophy, endometrial hyperplasia, or endometrial cancer, highlighting the importance of consulting a gynecologist for proper diagnosis and management. Radiologists evaluate X-rays, physiatrists manage rehabilitation teams, and oncologists treat clients with cancer. Therefore, in this case, the symptoms point towards a gynecological problem, emphasizing the necessity of seeking care from a gynecologist.
3. Which reported symptom(s) would indicate a client with Addison's disease has received too much fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement?
- A. Oily skin and hair
- B. Weight gain of 6 pounds in one week
- C. Loss of muscle mass in arms and legs
- D. Increased blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fludrocortisone replacement in Addison's disease involves mimicking the action of aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid that causes the retention of sodium and water. Excessive retention of sodium and water can lead to weight gain. Therefore, a sudden increase in weight, especially a significant amount like 6 pounds in one week, can indicate an overdose of fludrocortisone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because oily skin and hair, loss of muscle mass, and increased blood glucose levels are not typically associated with excessive fludrocortisone replacement.
4. A nurse is caring for a pregnant client in the labor unit who suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. On inspecting the amniotic fluid, the nurse notes that it is clear, with creamy white flecks. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take based on this finding?
- A. Check the client's temperature.
- B. Report the findings to the nurse-midwife.
- C. Obtain a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis.
- D. Document the findings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Therefore, the nurse would most appropriately document the findings. Checking the client's temperature, reporting the findings to the nurse-midwife, and obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis are not necessary in this situation. Cloudy, yellow, or foul-smelling amniotic fluid suggests infection, while green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. If abnormalities are noted, the nurse should notify the nurse-midwife.
5. The nurse is assessing an 18-month-old. Which of these statements made by the parent or caregiver would require follow-up?
- A. I'm worried that my child is not using two-word phrases yet.
- B. My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.
- C. My child seems to have developed separation anxiety when I leave.
- D. I'm letting my child use a spoon to eat.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'My child has recently taken a few steps but does not seem stable when standing.' By 18 months of age, children should have taken their first steps and stand well. If a child hasn't made progress by this age, a physical therapy evaluation may be necessary. It is normal for an 18-month-old to start using a spoon to eat. However, the use of two-word phrases is not typically expected until 2 years of age. Separation anxiety is a common developmental phase that typically occurs between 6 and 18 months, so it does not require immediate follow-up. Therefore, the statement about the child not being stable when standing raises a red flag and necessitates further evaluation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access