Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

2. A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client's skin is very dry. The nurse documents this finding using which term?

• A. Xerosis
• B. Pruritus
• C. Seborrhea
• D. Actinic keratoses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry skin is also called xerosis. In this condition, the epidermis lacks moisture or sebum and is often marked by a pattern of fine lines, scaling, and itching. Xerosis is the correct term for very dry skin. Pruritus is the symptom of itching, an uncomfortable sensation that prompts the urge to scratch the skin, but it does not specifically refer to dry skin. Seborrhea is a skin condition characterized by overproduction of sebum, leading to excessive oiliness or dry scales, not necessarily indicating very dry skin. Actinic keratoses are sun-related skin lesions that are premalignant and not associated with dry skin.

3. A nurse monitoring a newborn infant notes that the infant's respirations are 40 breaths/min. On the basis of this finding, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Contacting the registered nurse
• B. Documenting the findings
• C. Wrapping an extra blanket around the infant
• D. Placing the infant in an oxygen tent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal respiratory rate of a newborn infant is 30 to 60 breaths/min, with an average of 40. Since the infant's respiratory rate falls within the normal range, the most appropriate action for the nurse is to document the findings. Contacting the registered nurse, placing the infant in an oxygen tent, or wrapping an extra blanket around the infant are unnecessary actions as the respiratory rate is normal. Documenting the findings is important to provide a record of the assessment and serve as a baseline for future comparisons if needed.

4. After delivering a healthy newborn 1 hour ago, a nurse notes a woman's radial pulse rate is 55 beats/min. What action should the nurse take based on this finding?

• A. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider immediately
• B. Helping the woman stay in bed and rest
• C. Documenting the finding
• D. Performing active and passive range-of-motion exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After delivery, bradycardia (pulse rate 50-70 beats/min) may occur, reflecting the large amount of blood returning to the central circulation after delivery of the placenta. The increase in central circulation results in increased stroke volume, allowing a slower heart rate to provide adequate maternal circulation. A pulse rate of 55 beats/min falls within the normal range post-delivery, so there is no need to notify the healthcare provider immediately. It is important for the client to remain on bed rest in the immediate postpartum period to prevent complications. While range-of-motion exercises are beneficial for a client on bed rest, it is not the priority based on the data provided. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action is to document the finding for accurate record-keeping and monitoring of the client's condition.

5. A nurse is reading the report from the registered nurse for an initial home visit to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The client was recently discharged from the hospital. Which type of database does the nurse read that contains this information from the client?

• A. Episodic
• B. Follow-up
• C. Emergency
• D. Complete

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Complete.' A complete database includes a full health history and physical examination, providing a comprehensive overview of the client's current and past health status. This type of database establishes a baseline for future assessments, making it essential for the nurse's initial home visit to understand the client's health needs thoroughly post-hospital discharge. It is typically gathered in primary care settings like clinics, private practices, college health services, women's health care agencies, visiting nurse agencies, or community health agencies. An episodic database focuses on a specific short-term issue or body system, which is not comprehensive enough for the initial home visit after hospital discharge. A follow-up database is used to monitor a known problem at regular intervals, not suitable for an initial assessment. An emergency database is swiftly collected during urgent situations, often while lifesaving measures are being carried out, and is not relevant for a post-hospital discharge home visit.

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