Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

2. A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:

• A. sprain.
• B. strain.
• C. subluxation.
• D. dislocation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The term 'strain' is the correct choice. A strain refers to the excessive stretching of a muscle or tendon, which aligns with a pulled ligament diagnosis. A sprain, on the other hand, involves ligament injury due to twisting motions. 'Subluxation' indicates a partial dislocation of a joint, not a pulled ligament. 'Dislocation' refers to the complete displacement of bones in a joint, which is not the appropriate term for a pulled ligament.

3. A nurse sees documentation in the client's record indicating that the health care provider has noted the presence of adventitious breath sounds. The nurse knows that these types of sounds have which aspect?

• A. Normally heard in the lungs
• B. Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx
• C. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields
• D. Abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that are not normally heard in the lungs. These sounds are added sounds superimposed on the breath sounds. They are caused by air colliding with secretions in the tracheobronchial passageways or when previously deflated airways pop open. Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx are normal bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds, not adventitious. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields are normal vesicular breath sounds, not adventitious. Therefore, the correct answer is that adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs.

4. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?

• A. nausea and vomiting
• B. itching
• C. urinary retention
• D. somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.

5. In the context of diagnostic genetic counseling, which of the following choices is typically not made by clients?

• A. Terminating the pregnancy.
• B. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs.
• C. Accessing support services before the birth.
• D. Completing the grieving process before the birth.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diagnostic genetic counseling, clients may face difficult decisions based on test results. Terminating the pregnancy is a choice some clients may consider if severe abnormalities are detected. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs involves getting ready to care for a child who may require extra attention and support. Accessing support services before the birth can help clients connect with resources and professionals for assistance during and after the pregnancy. Completing the grieving process before birth is not typically a choice made in the context of genetic counseling. The grieving process often starts or continues after distressing results and can extend beyond the birth of the child. Therefore, the correct answer is completing the grieving process before the birth.

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