Nursing Elites

1. A client with dumping syndrome should..........................while a client with GERD should..........................

• A. Sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
• B. Lie down 1 hour after eating; sit up at least 30 minutes after eating
• C. Sit up after meals; sit up after meals
• D. Lie down after meals; lie down after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a client with dumping syndrome, lying down 1 hour after eating helps reduce symptoms by slowing down the movement of food through the digestive tract, aiding in symptom management. This position assists in symptom management for dumping syndrome. Conversely, for a client with GERD, sitting up at least 30 minutes after eating can help prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, reducing reflux symptoms. This upright position is beneficial for managing GERD. Choice A is incorrect because sitting up is recommended for GERD, not dumping syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests sitting up for both conditions, which is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as lying down after meals is not recommended for GERD; it can worsen symptoms by promoting acid reflux.

2. When assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client as part of a health assessment, what aspect should be the focus?

• A. agility
• B. speed
• C. body composition
• D. risk factors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing the health-related physical fitness of a client, the primary focus should be on identifying risk factors that could predispose the client to illness or injury. Risk factors are crucial in determining an individual's overall health status and potential health outcomes. While agility, speed, and body composition are important components of physical fitness assessments, they are not the primary focus when assessing health-related physical fitness from a holistic perspective. Therefore, the correct choice is 'risk factors.'

3. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
• C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
• D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.

4. A nurse is telling a pregnant client about the signs that must be reported to the health care provider. The nurse tells the client that the health care provider should be contacted if which occurs?

• A. Puffiness of the face
• B. Breast tenderness
• C. Morning sickness
• D. Urinary frequency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, it is important to be aware of danger signs that warrant contacting the healthcare provider. Puffiness of the face, especially around the eyes, can indicate a serious condition like preeclampsia. Other danger signs include vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes, severe abdominal pain, visual disturbances, persistent vomiting, and changes in fetal movements. Morning sickness, breast tenderness, and urinary frequency are common symptoms of pregnancy and are not typically concerning unless they become severe or persistent, and do not usually require immediate medical attention.

5. What is the threshold of dextrose concentrations that can safely be administered through a peripheral IV?

• A. Dextrose concentrations below 20% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 20% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• B. Dextrose concentrations below 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• C. Dextrose concentrations below 10% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• D. Dextrose concentrations above 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations below 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dextrose concentrations below 10% are considered safe for administration through a peripheral IV, as concentrations above this threshold can lead to phlebitis, causing inflammation of the vein. Concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV to prevent vein irritation. Choice A is incorrect because concentrations above 20% are too high for a peripheral IV. Choice B is incorrect as dextrose concentrations below 5% are too low to be effective. Choice D is incorrect because the statement is reversed, suggesting that concentrations above 5% are safe, which is not true.

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