Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is correct about Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

• A. There are psychosocial interventions that may be applicable to all of the levels.
• B. There are physical interventions that may be applicable to all of the levels.
• C. Two of the levels may require physical intervention while four of the levels may require psychosocial intervention.
• D. Four of the levels may require physical intervention, while two of the levels may require psychosocial intervention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement about Maslow's hierarchy of needs is that two of the levels may require physical intervention while four of the levels may require psychosocial intervention. Maslow's theory suggests that physiological and safety needs are more basic and may require physical interventions, while social, esteem, and self-actualization needs are more psychosocial. Choices A and B are incorrect as they wrongly suggest that all levels may require only one type of intervention. Choice D is incorrect because it inaccurately represents the balance of physical and psychosocial interventions in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

2. What classification of drug is Diltiazem?

• A. Calcium-Channel Blocker
• B. NSAID
• C. ACE Inhibitor
• D. Beta-Blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diltiazem belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers, not NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, or Beta-Blockers. Calcium-channel blockers like Diltiazem are used to treat conditions such as hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for Diltiazem is a Calcium-Channel Blocker. NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, and Beta-Blockers belong to different classes of drugs with distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses, making them incorrect choices for Diltiazem.

3. If Ms. Barrett's distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?

• A. The client can read from 20' what a person with normal vision can read at 30'.
• B. The client can read from 30' what a person with normal vision can read at 20'.
• C. The client can read the entire chart from 30'.
• D. The client can read the chart from 20' with the left eye and from 30' with the right eye.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When Ms. Barrett's distance vision is measured as 20/30, it means that she can read from 20 feet away what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet. The numerator (20) represents the distance in feet between the chart and the client, while the denominator (30) indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. In this case, Ms. Barrett's vision is slightly worse than normal, as she needs to be closer to the chart to read it clearly. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Choice B reverses the distances, Choice C assumes the client can read the entire chart from 30 feet, and Choice D introduces information not related to the 20/30 measurement.

4. How should a client's neck be positioned for palpation of the thyroid?

• A. flexed toward the side being examined
• B. hyperextended directly backward
• C. flexed away from the side being examined
• D. flexed directly forward

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to position a client's neck for palpation of the thyroid is to have it flexed toward the side being examined. This positioning helps to better access and palpate the thyroid gland. Option B, hyperextending the neck directly backward, is incorrect as it can make palpation more difficult and uncomfortable for the client. Option C, flexing the neck away from the side being examined, is also incorrect as it may obscure the thyroid gland, making it harder to palpate. Option D, flexing the neck directly forward, is not ideal for thyroid palpation as it does not provide the best access to the gland.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.

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